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ZOS Mastery

Large groups of physical servers located in a central location are known as server farms. The most common mainframe workload is batch and online transaction processing. In addition to z/OS and z/VM, operating systems like z/VSE, Linux on z, and z/TPF can run on IBM System z mainframes. FICON channels have higher capacity than older ESCON channels. IFL specialty processors on IBM mainframes are specially tuned to run the SAP application suite. Coupling facilities are required for Parallel Sysplex clustering of mainframes.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
142 views

ZOS Mastery

Large groups of physical servers located in a central location are known as server farms. The most common mainframe workload is batch and online transaction processing. In addition to z/OS and z/VM, operating systems like z/VSE, Linux on z, and z/TPF can run on IBM System z mainframes. FICON channels have higher capacity than older ESCON channels. IFL specialty processors on IBM mainframes are specially tuned to run the SAP application suite. Coupling facilities are required for Parallel Sysplex clustering of mainframes.

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Vishal Funding
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© © All Rights Reserved
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1. Many companies have very large groups of physical servers in a central location.

Which of the following describes those large groups of servers?

a.IBM mainframes
b.Remote distributed processing
c.zBX
d.Server farms

Answer :D

2. Which of the following is the most common business application mainframe


workload?

a.Batch and online transaction processing


b.Printing and distribution processing
c.Backup and archiving processing
d.Restoration and recovery processing

Answer :A

3. In addition to the z/OS and z/VM operating systems, which of the following operating
systems run on IBM System z excluding zBX?

a.Windows, Linux on z, z/TPF


b.AIX, z/VSE, Linux on z
c.Windows, Linux on z, AIX
d.z/VSE, Linux on z, z/TPF

Answer :D

4. Which of the following describes the major difference between and FICON or ESCON
channels?

a.ESCON channels are faster, FICON channels are slower


b.ESCON channels use hard copper connections, FICON channels use fibre
connections
c.ESCON channels are more secure than FICON channels
d.FICON channels have higher capacity than ESCON channels

Answer :D

5. IBM mainframe offers specialty processors (zIIP, zAAP, SAP and IFL). Which of the
following accurately describes a function of one of these specialty processors?

a.zAAP processors automatically turns off unnecessary computing components.


b.IFL is used by a Linux LPAR or Linux on z/VM
c.zIIP processors automatically run high priority jobs first
d.SAP processors are specially tuned to run the SAP application suite

Answer :B

6. Which of the following mainframe technologies requires a coupling facility?

a.CTC ring
b.Shared DASD
c.Parallel Sysplex
d.zAAP

Answer :C

7. Which of the following can identify a base software component?

a.Message format
b.Software update list
c.System log routing table descriptor
d.Three characters in message identifier

Answer :D

8. A system z architecture has two kinds of physical storage. There is central storage
and auxiliary storage. Access to central storage is _________.

a.multi-synchronous
b.asychronous
c.synchronous
d.duplexed

Answer :C

9. The range of virtual addresses that z/OS can assign to a user or separately running
program is called a(n) ___________ space.

a.Virtual
b.Physical
c.Address
d.Mapping

Answer :C

10. The subset of an address space’s pages in central storage at a given time is known
as the ________.
a.Virtual set
b.Address set
c.Working set
d.Central set

Answer :C

11. Which of the following does the PA1 key denote in TSO/E?

a.Terminate
b.Attention
c.Cancel
d.Exit

Answer :B

12. In addition to telnet, which method can be used to log in directly to the z/OS UNIX
shell through TCP/IP?

a.logon
b.rlogin
c.map
d.FTP

Answer :B

13. Which TSO command can be entered at the READY prompt to diagnose an error
message?

a.?
b.Help
c.Assist
d.Analyze

Answer :B

14. Which of the following languages can be executed as a single command from a list of
commands without compiling it?

a.CLIST or REXX
b.Assembler
c.COBOL
d.PL/1

Answer :A
15. Which of the following is a characteristic of Native TSO?

a.It provides a full screen editor for updating datasets


b.It provides a ready prompt to enter commands
c.It provides a dataset list for editing data sets
d.It provides a menu to enter commands

Answer :B

16. Including all name segments and periods, the length of a dataset name cannot
exceed how many characters?

a.48
b.44
c.40
d.36

Answer :B

17. When describing a data set, which of the following is a valid z/OS record format?

a.Partitioned
b.Standard
c.Shifting
d.Fixed

Answer :D

18. Whenever a new customer record is added, it is always added at the end of the data
set. Whenever the customer data set records are processed, they are always
processed starting at the beginning of the data set, each record is read and
processed, and processing stops when the last record in the data set has been
processed. What is the data set type?

a.Sequential
b.PDS/E
c.RRDS
d.PDS

Answer :A

19. Which of the following types of data sets contains a directory and members?

a.Partitioned
b.Sequential
c.VSAM
d.KSDS
Answer :A

20. Which of the following describes a non partitioned data set?

a.A collection of one or more recordsthat isstored in physical order


b.A collection of sequential data sets called members
c.A collection of logically related data records
d.A collection of directory and members

Answer :C

21. When creating new data sets, one must specify the NEW option for the DISP
parameter of a DD statement. Which of the following is required in addition to the
NEW option when allocating disk space?

a.The type of high speed memory in the system


b.The space allocated for the dynamic extents
c.A hierarchical file system name
d.A volume serial number

Answer :D

22. A programmer can select almost any name for a JCL DD name. There are a number
of reserved DD names that a programmer cannot use. Which of the following is a
reserved DD name?

a.//SYSDDUMP DD ?
b.//SYSABEND DD ?
c.//STOPLIB DD ?
d.//JOBLAB DD ?

Answer :B

23. Which of the following is the sequence of the job phases as they flow through the
system?

a.Input, Purge, Convert, Output, Process, Print


b.Input, Output, Convert, Process, Purge, Print
c.Input, Convert, Process, Output, Print, Purge
d.Input, Process, Print, Convert, Purge, Output

Answer :C

24. Which of the following describes a JCL data definition statement?

a.Associates a program coded file name with JCL DDNAME


b.Associates a program coded file name with a JCL EXEC
c.Associates a JCL PROC with a symbolic file name
d.Associates a JCL EXEC with a program name

Answer :A

25. Which of the following is a valid function of the initiator?

a.Avoid program conflicts


b.Avoid data set conflicts
c.Access TSO terminals
d.Prioritize running jobs

Answer :B

26. Which of the following is the purpose of JES?

a.Receives and schedules jobs, and controls output processing


b.Creates new data sets as instructed by the JCL
c.Helps users design or update new programs
d.Validates login information to identify users

Answer :A

27. Which of the following does IBM provide in SYS1.LINKLIB?

a.Links to other systems


b.Cataloged procedures
c.Application programs
d.System programs

Answer :D

28. Which of the following enables processing of a batch job in a z/OS environment?

a.UNIX Services
b.ISPF
c.TSO
d.JCL

Answer :D

29. Which of the following is a JOB statement parameter?

a.SYSOUT=
b.PARM=
c.USER=
d.UNIT=

Answer :C

30. Which of the following is included in the system test phase?

a.Unit test of a module or class


b.Performance or stress test
c.Client acceptance test
d.Logic test

Answer :B

31. Which of the following resources processes the JCL statements for each job?

a.Initiator
b.Spool
c.JES2
d.WLM

Answer :D

32. Which of the following is the reason to design an application to run online?

a.The users require online access to data and fast response time
b.Users do not require to run the application as a batch program
c.Transactions are submitted for overnight processing
d.Data is stored on tape

Answer :A

33. Which of the following is an appropriate concern for the z/OS application developer?

a.Deciding whether business rules and policies are appropriate for the project
b.Selecting the right personnel to assist in the development of the application
c.Coding and testing the software being developed for a particular project
d.Selecting the correct hardware platform to support the application

Answer :C

34. Which of the following is the most commonly used interface for z/OS application
programmers?

a.Rational Developer for System z (RDz)


b.TSO/E and ISPF
c.X Window
d.TN 3270

Answer :B

35. Which of the following best describes an assembler instruction?

a.A request to the assembler to do certain operations during the assembly of a


source module
b.A request that must be parsed, interpreted, and executed each time that the
program is run
c.A request to the assembler program to process a predefined sequence of
instructions
d.The symbolic representation of a machine language instruction

Answer :A

36. In COBOL, which statement connects a file’s internal FD name to an external JCL DD
name?

a.Record
b.Select
c.Read
d.Open

Answer :B

37. Which of the following languages can be interpreted or compiled?

a.Assembler
b.COBOL
c.REXX
d.CLIST

Answer :C

38. What term describes the output of a compiler?

a.Compile Module
b.Source Module
c.Object Module
d.Load Module

Answer :C
39. What types of modules are input to the binder or linkage editor?

a.Compiled Modules
b.Source Modules
c.Output Modules
d.Object Modules

Answer :D

40. Which of the following are used to create an executable module from an object
deck?

a.Relocation program
b.Linkage editor
c.Preprocessor
d.Precompiler

Answer :B

41. Which of the following actions ensure the "atomic" property of a transaction
processing system?

a.Restart and recovery


b.Commit and rollback
c.Accept and deny
d.Apply and retry

Answer :B

42. What is a CICS transaction?

a.The amount of data transferred by executing a single CICS command


b.A request issued by a synch point manager
c.A unit of work initiated by a single request
d.A request issued by a resource manager

Answer :A

43. After signing on to CICS, how does a user invoke a transaction?

a.By issuing a TSO command


b.By typing INVOKE CICS
c.By typing EXEC CICS
d.By typing a TRANSID

Answer :D
44. Which of the following DB2 address spaces is used to communicate with other DB2
subsystems?

a.Distributed Data Facility


b.Lock Manager Services
c.Database Services
d.System Services

Answer :A

45. Which of the following describes SQL where DB2 determines the access path at run
time?

a.Determined
b.Dynamic
c.Static
d.Agile

Answer :B

46. Which of the following is a logical database structure made up of rows and columns?

a.Table space
b.Table
c.Index
d.DBMS

Answer :B

47. Which of the following is an application program defined to DB2 and managed by the
DB2 subsystem, used to help limit the number of network calls to run queries against
the database?

a.User Defined Function


b.User Defined Type
c.Stored Procedure
d.Trigger

Answer :C

48. Which of the following is one of DB2’s three required address spaces?

a.Distributed Data Facility Services


b.Message Processing Services
c.Stored Procedure Services
d.Lock Manager Services
Answer :D

49. Which of the following is a Java API to access different forms of tabular data?

a.JDBC
b.J2EE
c.JVM
d.JMS

Answer :A

50. SSI, Cookie Support, Tracing and Logging, and Persistent Connections are
considered what type of z/OS-specific HTTP functions?

a.File Caching
b.Security
c.Add-on
d.Basic

Answer :D

51. Which of the following z/OS UNIX files determines the behavior of a z/OS HTTP
Server request passed to a plug-in?

a.plugin-cfg.xml
b.plugin-cfg xml
c.polugin.conf
d.profile

Answer :A

52. Which of the following is true of Type 4 JDBC drivers?

a.Fully written in java, can be ported to any platform that supports DBMS protocol.
b.JDBC API calls platform and database specific code to access the database.
c.JDBC default driver for z/OS
d.Offers the best performance

Answer :A

53. Which of the following programming models is supported by the WebSphere


Application Server (WAS) for z/OS environment?

a.Parallel Object Oriented


b.Java macro level (JML)
c.Procedural Architecture
d.J2EE
Answer :D

54. Which of the following describes the WebSphere Application Server (WAS) capability
to detect application failures and to restart when a failure occurs?

a.ARM
b.ASM
c.RSM
d.SRM

Answer :A

55. When an MQ application sends a "request" message type, what message type is
expected in return?

a.Datagram
b.Return
c.Result
d.Reply

Answer :D

56. Which of the following is required for an MQ application to send a message to


another application on a different computing platform?

a.Establish an asynchronous communication channel to effect the transfer


b.Establish a synchronous communication channel to effect the transfer
c.Use an MQI bidirectional channel to effect the transfer
d.Use a logical MQ channel to effect the transfer

Answer :D

57. Which of the following disk volumes contains the IPL text?

a.SYSCAT
b.SYSRES
c.SYSDLB
d.SYSZOS

Answer :B

58. Which of the following processes is needed to load a mainframe operating system?

a.TSO/E
b.IML
c.JES
d.IPL
Answer :D

59. Which of the following items directs the system to locate z/OS data sets?

a.Storage Group
b.Master Catalog
c.DB2 Tables
d.SDSF

Answer :B

60. Which of the following elements allow different z/OS systems to share PARMLIB
definitions while retaining unique values in those definitions?

a.System Parameters
b.System Messages
c.System Symbols
d.System Codes

Answer :C

61. Which of the following z/OS components controls TSO, batch job and started task
priority assignments?

a.ASM
b.RSM
c.WLM
d.VSM

Answer :C

62. Which of the following are contained in the SMP/E CSI?

a.Element descriptions
b.APAR Elements
c.User Elements
d.PTF Elements

Answer :A

63. Which of the following belongs to the SYSMOD category?

a.SCHEDULER
b.FUNCTION
c.SPSF
d.APF
Answer :B

64. Which of the following is used to introduce new elements to the system using
SMP/E?

a.Base and Dependent function SYSMODs


b.Hardware Management Console (HMC)
c.Initial Program Load (IPL)
d.APAR and PTF

Answer :A,D

65. Which of the following is a main responsibility of the RACF administrator?

a.Program Debugging
b.Software Installation
c.Security Planning
d.Job Scheduling

Answer :C

66. Which of the following z/OS features allows selected programs to reside in special
libraries and thereby access sensitive z/OS system functions (such as running in
supervisor state or executing privileged instructions)?

a.Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) Server


b.Resource Access Control Facility (RACF)
c.System Authorization Facility (SAF)
d.Authorized Program Facility (APF)

Answer :D

67. Which of the following enables an organization to define individuals and groups with
access privileges to z/OS?

a.RACF
b.APF
c.JES
d.SVC

Answer :A

68. Which of the following software products provides basic security for a mainframe
system?

a.RACF
b.LDAP
c.PKI
d.SAF

Answer :A

69. Which of the following RACF structures retains information about users, resources,
and access authorities?

a.Templates
b.Groups
c.Profiles
d.Access

Answer :C

70. Which of the following describes TN3270?

a.VTAM 3270 common storage for telnet


b.SNA telnet standard for 3270 protocol
c.Telnet standard for 3270 data stream
d.TCP/IP standard RFC 3270

Answer :A

71. Which of the following allows a full panel of data entries and corrections to be sent to
the receiving SNA application when the Enter key is pressed?

a.3270 data stream


b.OSI data network
c.VTAM
d.APPN

Answer :D

72. Which of the following enables network devices to communicate with SNA
applications in the z/OS environment?

a.BTAM
b.VSAM
c.VTAM
d.BDAM

Answer :C

73. Which of the following describes the z/OS Communications Storage Manager (CSM)?
a.Communications Server disk storage
b.Layered network model storage
c.RFC common storage standard
d.Shared I/O buffer for data flow

Answer :D

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