10/06/2022 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 2 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
SECTION-A 4. Three rods of material x and three rods of
1. In an electromagnetic wave travelling in free material y are connected as shown in figure. All
space peak value of the magnetic field is the rods are of identical length and cross-
B0 = 2.83 × 10–8 T. The peak value of electric sectional area. If the end A is maintained at 60°C
field is nearly
and the junction E at 10°C. The temperature of
(1) 6 V/m (2) 8.5 V/m
junction B is
(3) 7.25 V/m (4) 6.5 V/m
(Thermal conductivity of material x is 0.92 cal
2. Two coherent sources each emitting light of
intensity I0 and amplitude A0 interfere in a cm–1 s–1 °C–1 and thermal conductivity of material
medium at a point where path difference between y is 0.46 cal cm–1 s–1 °C–1.)

them is given by . Then the resultant intensity
3
and amplitude at that point would be
(1) 3I0 , 3 A0 (2) I0, A0
(3) 4I0, 2A0 (4) I0, 2A0
3. 10 g of water at 30°C and 10 g of ice at –20°C
are mixed together in a calorimeter. Find the (1) 20°C
amount of ice that melts. Specific heat of ice =
(2) 30°C
0.5 cal g–1°C–1 and latent heat of ice = 80 cal g–1.
(1) 2.5 g (2) 1.25 g (3) 35°C
(3) 3.5 g (4) 4.25 g (4) 50°C
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CST-2 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

5. A student measures the time period of a simple 9. You want to move a 500 N crate on a level floor.
pendulum. He uses the data to estimate value of To start the crate you need to pull it with a force
‘g’, the acceleration due to gravity. If the of 220 N horizontally. Once the crate starts you
maximum percentage errors in measurement of can keep it moving at constant velocity by
time period and length of pendulum are e1 and e2 applying a horizontal 180 N force. The coefficient
respectively, then the maximum percentage error of static friction and kinetic friction between the
in the estimation of ‘g’ is
crate and floor is
(1) e1 + e2 (2) 2e1 + 2e2
(1) 0.36, 0.36 (2) 0.44, 0.36
(3) e1 + 2e2 (4) 2e1 + e2
(3) 0.35, 0.25 (4) 0.52, 0.25
6. The velocity of a particle as a function of time is
c
10. A hydraulic press contains 0.25 m3 of oil. What is
given as v (t ) = at 2 + bt + 2 , where a, b, c decrease in the volume of the oil when it is
t +d
subjected to a pressure increase of 1.6 × 107 Pa?
and d are constants, The dimensions of   is
ab
The bulk modulus of oil is B = 5 × 109 Pa.
 
cd
(1) 2 × 10–4 m3 (2) 6 × 10–4 m3
(1) [L3T–8] (2) [LT–8]
(3) 8 × 10–4 m3 (4) 4 × 10–4 m3
(3) [L2T–6] (4) [LT–2]
11. Mean free path of a molecule of air at 27°C and
7. The output Y for logic circuit shown below is
1 atm is, given molecule as a sphere with radius
r = 2.0 × 10–10 m.
(1) 5.8 × 10–8 m (2) 3.6 × 10–7 m
(3) 4.2 × 10–7 m (4) 3.5 × 10–8 m
12. The work that has to be done isobarically on 1
mole of a diatomic gas to increase its rms speed
3 times from 300 K, is nearest to
(1) Y = A.B + A + B + B + C
(1) 2.4 × 103 J (2) 1.4 × 103 J
(2) Y = A.B + A  B + B  C (3) 1.8 × 102 J (4) 2.0 × 104 J
(3) Y = A.B + A  B + B  C 13. A compass needle having magnetic dipole
moment 60 Am2 is placed in a uniform magnetic
(4) Y = A + B + A + B + B  C
field of 4 × 10–5 Wb m–2. It experiences a torque
8. Match the Column I which having different types of 1.2 × 10–3 N m. The angle made by the dipole
of semiconductor at room temperature with
moment with magnetic field is
Column II containing the energy band
representations. (1) 30° (2) 37°
(3) 45° (4) 60°
Column I Column II
14. A 100 F capacitor in series with a 40  resistor
A. p-type semiconductor P.
is connected to 100 V, 60 Hz ac supply. The
current amplitude in the circuit is nearly
(1) 1.5 A (2) 2.95 A
(3) 2.0 A (4) 1.8 A
B. n-type semiconductor Q.
15. The differential equation representing the SHM of
d 2y
a particle is 25 + 9 y = 0 , the time taken by
dt 2
A
C. Intrinsic semiconductor R. the particle to travel from y = 0 to y = will be
2
(Where A is amplitude of the particle).
 
(1) (2)
6 12
(1) A(R), B(Q), C(P) (2) A(P), B(Q), C(R) 5 5
(3) (4)
(3) A(R), B(P), C(Q) (4) A(Q), B(P), C(R) 18 9

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-2 (Code-A)

16. Moment of inertia of a solid cylinder of mass m,

length 2r, radius r about an axis passing through
its centre and perpendicular to its length is

mr 2 5mr 2
(1) (2)
3 6

7mr 2 2mr 2
(3) (4)
12 3 (1) 6.2 A (2) 0.004 A
17. A metre stick is balanced on a knife edge at its (3) 0.1 A (4) 0.6 A
centre. When two coin, each of mass 6 g are put 21. The average acceleration in first 20 seconds for
the graph shown in figure is
one on top of the other at the 20 cm mark, the
stick is found to be balanced at 40 cm. The mass
of the stick is
(1) 10 g (2) 18 g
(3) 30 g (4) 24 g
18. An optical system consist of a thin convex lens of (1) 20 m/s2 (2) 15 m/s2
focal length 20 cm and a plane mirror placed (3) 10 m/s2 (4) 25 m/s2
25 cm behind the lens. An object is placed 10 cm 22. A glass disc of radius ‘R’ is floating on the
infront of the lens. The distance of intermediate surface of a liquid having density ‘’ and surface
image (after reflection from mirror) from the tension ‘T’. The force on the disc due to surface
object is tension when it is just lift off from water surface is
(1) 80 cm (2) 20 cm (1) 2RT (2) R2T
(3) 10 cm (4) 30 cm (3) 2R2T (4) RT

19. The image for the converging beam, after 23. Seven capacitors, each of capacitance 2 F are
10
refraction through the curved surface, from the to be combined to obtain a capacitance of F.
11
point O is formed at a distance of
Which of the following combination is possible?
(1) 2 in parallel, 5 in series
(2) 3 in parallel, 4 in series
(3) 4 in parallel, 3 in series
(4) 5 in parallel, 2 in series
24. When a current I is set up in a wire of radius r,
the drift velocity is vd. If the same current is setup
through a wire of radius 2r of same material, the
drift velocity will be
(1) 4vd (2) 2vd
8 vd vd
(1) 18 cm (2) cm (3) (4)
7 2 4
(3) 8 cm (4) 4 cm 25. In the circuit shown in figure, the potential
difference between the points A and B would be
20. A rectangular loop with a sliding connector of
length 5 cm is situated in uniform magnetic field
perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The
magnetic induction is 0.2 tesla and resistance of
the connector (R) is 1 ohm. The side AB and CD
each have resistances 8 . The current in the
(1) 10 V (2) 9 V
connector which is moving with velocity 2 m/s will
be (3) 20 V (4) 12 V

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CST-2 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

26. A particle moves in a space such that 31. Current flows through uniform square frames as
its co-ordinates are x = 2t3 + 3t + 4; y = t2 + 4t –1; shown. In which case is the magnetic field at
z = 2sin(t) where x, y, z are measured in metre centre of frame not zero?
and t in seconds. The acceleration at t = 3 s is (i) (ii)
(1) (36iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ ) ms−2

(2) (36iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ ) ms−2

(iii)
−2
(3) (36i + 2 j ) ms
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (i)
(4) (12i + 2 j ) ms−2 (3) (ii), (iii) (4) (i), (iii)
27. At what height above the earth’s surface does 32. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes a
the acceleration due to gravity fall to 1% of its transition from n = n1 to n = n2. The time period of
value at the earth’s surface? electron in initial state is eight times that in final
state. The possible value of n1 and n2 are
(1) 9R (2) 10R
(1) n1 = 4, n2 = 2 (2) n1 = 8, n2 = 2
(3) 99R (4) 100R (3) n1 = 8, n2 = 1 (4) n1 = 6, n2 = 2
28. A pulse shown here is reflected from the rigid 33. An electric dipole placed in any uniform electric
wall A and then from free end B. The shape of field
string after there two reflections will be (1) Must experience some non-zero force
(2) Must experience some non-zero torque
(3) May experience some non-zero force
(4) May experience some non-zero torque
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34. If 6 × 1011 electrons move out of a body to
another body every minute. Time required to get
(2) a total charge of 2 C on the other body is nearly
(1) 200 years (2) 400 years
(3) (3) 58 years (4) 40 years
35. Angle between the two vectors P = 2iˆ + 3 jˆ − 5kˆ
(4) and Q = 6iˆ + 2 jˆ + kˆ is

29. A metallic wire of length L is fixed between two  169   13 

(1) cos−1   (2) sin−1  
rigid supports. If the wire is cooled through a  1558   1558 
temperature difference of , then the frequency
−1  169  −1  1389 
of transverse vibration is proportional to (3) tan   (4) sin  
(Y = Young’s modulus,  = density,  =  1558   1558 
Coefficient of linear expansion) SECTION-B
 Y 36. In YDSE, the two slits are separated by 0.1 mm
(1) (2) and slit plane is 0.5 m away from the screen. The
Y 
wavelength of light used is 5000 Å. The distance
  between 7th maxima and 11th minima on the
(3) (4) upper side of screen.
Y Y
(1) 7 mm (2) 8.2 mm
30. The decay constant for radioactive nuclide 64Cu
(3) 8.75 mm (4) 7.75 mm
is 1.516 × 10–5 s–1. The initial activity of sample
containing 1 g of 64Cu is nearly 37. Two resistors R1 = (30  1) and R2 = (60  2)
are connected in series and then in parallel. The
Atomic weight of Cu is 63.5 g mol–1. Neglect
maximum percentage error in the measurement
mass difference between given radioisotope and of the equivalent resistance for series and
normal copper (take NA = 6 × 1023). parallel combinations will be
(1) 1.4 × 1014 Bq (2) 1.9 × 1013 Bq (1) 6.67%, 3.33% (2) 5%, 3.33%
(3) 1.4 × 1011 Bq (4) 1.9 × 1012 Bq (3) 3.33%, 3.33 % (4) 3.33%, 9.99%

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-2 (Code-A)

38. If  and  are the current gains for common base 44. The density of water at the surface of ocean is .
and common emitter configuration of bipolar The density of ocean water at depth where
junction transistor, then correct relation between pressure is p0(p0 = atmospheric pressure,
 and  is B = bulk modulus of ocean water)
B B
1 1 1 1 (1) (2)
(1) + =1 (2) − =1 B − (  − 1) p0 B + (  − 1) p0
   
(3)  +  = 1 (4) . = 1 B B
(3) (4)
B − p0 B + p0
39. For a car travelling at a certain speed, it is
possible to bank a curve at just an angle so that 45. Some equipotential surfaces are shown in figure.
no friction at all is needed. Suppose a car is The magnitude and direction of the electric field
travelling at an average speed of 25 m/s and is ( = 30°)
radius of curved track is R = 85 m. The banking
angle required is approximately (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(1) 30° (2) 37°
(3) 45° (4) 15°
40. A gas at pressure P is adiabatically compressed
so that its density becomes twice that of initial
value. Given that ratio of specific heats at (1) 100 V/m making angle 120° with positive x
constant pressure and constant volume is (3/2). axis
What will be final pressure of the gas? (2) 200 V/m making an angle 60° with positive x
(1) 2.83P (2) 2.6P axis
(3) 0.6P (4) 1.6P (3) 200 V/m making an angle 120° with positive x
axis
41. An electric device draws 2 kW power from ac
(4) 100 V/m making an angle 60° with positive x
mains voltage 200 volt. The current lags in phase
axis
by  = tan−1   as compared to voltage. The
3
46. In the circuit shown in figure, current is zero
4 through
resistance in the circuit is
(1) 10  (2) 14 
(3) 20  (4) 12.8 
42. A force F is applied at the distance x from the
centre of the solid sphere as shown in figure. The
sphere starts pure rolling on the given smooth
(1) R4 only (2) R3 and R4
surface, then the value of x will be
(3) R2 and R4 (4) R2, R3 and R4
47. Let p and E denote the linear momentum and the
energy of a photon. For another photon of
smaller wavelength (in same medium)
(1) Both p and E increases
(2) p increases and E decreases
2R 2R (3) p decreases and E increases
(1) (2)
3 5 (4) Both p and E decreases
R R 48. Two point masses of mass 4m and m
(3) (4) respectively separated by a distance d are
2 4
revolving under mutual gravitational force of
43. The finger prints are observed by the use of attraction. The ratio of their kinetic energies is
(1) Telescope (2) Concave lens (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 5
(3) Microscope (4) Galilean telescope (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2

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CST-2 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

49. A block of mass m and charge q is released on a 50. A block of mass m = 2 kg moving on a horizontal
long smooth inclined plane. The magnetic field B surface with speed 10 m/s enters a rough patch
is outward to plane of paper as shown. The time ranging from x = 0.2 m to x = 4.02 m. The
when block looses contact is retarding force Fr on the block in this range is
inversely proportional to x over this range,
−k
Fr = , for 0.2 < x < 4.02 m
x
= 0, for x < 0.2 m and x > 4.02 m
where, k = 2 J. Final speed of the block as it
crosses this patch will be nearly
m cos  m cosec
(1) (2) (1) 9.7 m/s
qB qB
(2) 7.6 m/s
m cot  m sin 
(3) (4) (3) 6.8 m/s
qB qB
(4) 11.2 m/s

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A (3) Non-essential amino acids can be
51. The correct order of decreasing priority of the synthesised in the body
given functional groups in IUPAC nomenclature (4) During denaturation of protein, 2° and 3°
is structures are destroyed but 1° structure
remain intact
(1) – SO3H > – COOH > – CONH2 > – COCl
55. Ambidentate ligand among the following is
(2) – COOH > – SO3H > – COCl > – CONH2
(1) H2O (2) en
(3) – COOH > – SO3H > – CONH2 > – COCl
(3) NO2− (4) ox
(4) – SO3H > – COOH > – COCl > – CONH2
52. Major product obtained by the reaction of 56. 2 mol of an ideal gas expanded from 10 L to 20 L
1-butene with Baeyer’s reagent is isothermally at 27°C. Entropy change in the
above process is
(1) (2) (1) R ln2 (2) 2R ln2
(3) R ln8 (4) 2R ln3
(3) (4)
57. pH of the solution made by mixing 200 ml of 0.1
M CH3COOH and 100 ml of 0.1 M NaOH solution
53. Consider the following reaction sequence,
is
(pKa (CH3COOH) = 4.7)
(1) 4.7 (2) 9.3
Products A and B respectively are (3) 2.3 (4) 11.7
58. In which of the following compounds, 180° bond
(1) (2) angle is not present?
(1) XeF4 (2) PCl5
(3) (4) (3) SF6 (4) ClF3
59. If half life for a first order reaction is 10 min then
54. Incorrect statement among the following is time required for 87.5% completion of the
reaction is
(1) Threonine is an essential amino acid
(1) 17.5 min (2) 20 min
(2) Myosin is an example of globular protein
(3) 30 min (4) 35 min
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-2 (Code-A)

60. Maximum flocculating power for the coagulation 66. Compressibility factor of a gas at critical point is
of positive sol is of
8 3
(1) PO34− (2) SO24− (1) (2)
3 8
(3) Al3+ (4) Na+
27 8
61. Average atomic mass of an element ‘A’ that (3) (4)
exists as two isotopes 20A and 22A with the 8 27
percentage abundance of 80% and 20% 67. Which of the following is a Transuranium
respectively will be element?
(1) 21.6 u (2) 20.4 u (1) Tb (2) W
(3) 20.2 u (4) 21.8 u
(3) Th (4) Np
62. Mole fraction of urea in 5 m aqueous solution will
be 68. Compound which has the highest boiling point is
10 20 (1) H2O (2) H2S
(1) (2)
121 121 (3) H2Se (4) H2Te
25 10 69. Cl2 on reaction with hot and concentrated NaOH
(3) (4)
121 111 gives
63. If a mixture of water and ethanol boils at 370 K, (1) NaClO + NaClO2 (2) NaClO3 + NaClO4
then what will be the mole fraction of ethanol in
the given mixture? (3) NaCl + NaClO3 (4) NaCl +NaClO4
(at 370 K, PH O = 700 mmHg, PC H OH = 800 70. IUPAC name of catechol is
2 2 5

mmHg) (1) Benzene -1, 4-diol (2) Benzene-1, 2-diol

(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4 (3) 2-Methylphenol (4) Benzene-1, 3-diol
(3) 0.6 (4) 0.8 71. Consider the following reaction.

64.

Major product P is
(1) 2-Methoxybutan-1-ol
Identify the best suitable reagent ‘A’ for the
above reaction. (2) 2-Methoxy-2-methylpropan-1-ol
(1) C2H5OH + NaOH (3) 2-Methoxybutan-2-ol
(2) C2H5OH + KOH (4) 1-Methoxy-2-methylpropan-2-ol
(3) (CH3)3COH + (CH3)3CONa 72. Consider the following reaction sequence,
(4) Na/Hg + HCl
65.

Major product obtained in the above reaction will

be Major product (C) is

(1)
(1) (2)

(2)

(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 –Cl

(4) (3) (4)

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CST-2 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

73. Monomer(s) of Nylon 6 is/are 80. Statement I : Temporary Hardness of water is

due to the presence of magnesium and calcium
(1) Adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine
hydrogen carbonates.
(2) Terephthalic acid
Statement II: Permanent hardness of water can
(3) Acrylonitrile be removed by boiling the water.
(4) Caprolactam In the light of above statements choose the
74. Narrow spectrum antibiotic among the following correct option.
is (1) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct
(1) Vancomycin (2) Ofloxacin (2) Statement-I and statement-II both are
(3) Penicillin G (4) Chloramphenicol incorrect

75. The angular momentum of an electron in 3rd shell (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
(1) 2  (2) 3
correct
(3) 1.5 (4) 81. In Hall-Heroult process, purified Al2O3 is mixed
76. Match the oxides in Column I with their properties with
shown in Column II (1) Na3AlF6
Column I Column II (2) Na3AIF4

(i) N2O (a) Acidic (3) CaCl2

(ii) Na2O (b) Amphoteric (4) NaF

82. Which among the following species can not show
(iii) As2O3 (c) Neutral
disproportionation reaction?
(iv) SO3 (d) Basic (1) S2Cl2 (2) SO2
(1) (i)a, (ii)b, (iii)d, (iv)c (3) SCl2 (4) H2SO4
(2) (i)c, (ii)d, (iii)b, (iv)a 83. The packing fraction for BCC unit cell is

(3) (i)a, (ii)d, (iii)b, (iv)c 3 3

(1) (2)
(4) (i)c, (ii)b, (iii)d, (iv)a 4 8
77. The products obtained upon heating washing 3 3 
soda at 375 K is (3) (4)
2 2 2 3
(1) Na2CO3 + 10H2O 84. Consider the following cell reaction,
(2) Na2CO3·H2O + CO2 + H2O Ni(s) + 2Ag+ (0.002M) → Ni2+(0.16M) + 2Ag(s),
(3) Na2CO3 + CO2 + 10H2O E°cell = 1.05 V, the Ecell will be

(4) Na2CO3·H2O + 9H2O (1) 0.91 V

78. The correct formula of borax is (2) 0.75 V

(1) Na2[B4O5(OH)4].8H2O (3) 1.21 V

(2) Na2[B4O7(OH)5].6H2O (4) 1.82 V

(3) Na2[B4O4(OH)3].7H2O 85. Bohr magneton is equal to

(4) Na2[B4O6(OH)2].9H2O (1) 3.25 × 10–23 A m2

79. Which among the following is not an eye irritant? (2) 5.27 × 10–22 A m2

(1) SO2 (2) O3 (3) 9.27 × 10–24 A m2

(3) PAN (4) N2 (4) 7.21 × 10–25 A m2

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-2 (Code-A)

SECTION-B 93. Conjugate acid and base for H2PO 4− ion

86. The compound which on hydrogenation will respectively are
liberate highest amount of energy is (1) H3PO4 and H3PO2 (2) H3PO4 and PO34−
(1) (2) (3) H3PO3 and HPO 24 − (4) H3PO4 and HPO 24 −
94. Maximum dipole moment among the following is
(3) (4)
of
87. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.5 g (1) NH3 (2) NF3
of an organic compound gave 0.564 g of AgBr. (3) CCl4 (4) CHCl3
Percentage of bromine present in the organic 95. Identify the gas which will show maximum
compound is negative deviation from ideal behavior according
to following graph.
(1) 16% (2) 64%
(3) 36% (4) 48%
88. The compound which reacts with the fastest rate
towards HCN addition reaction is

(1) D (2) B
(1) CH3CHO (2)
(3) A (4) C
96. Which of the following amines can be prepared
using Gabriel phthalimide synthesis?
(3) (4) (1) (2) (CH3)2NH

(3) (4) (CH3CH2)3N

89. Calculated magnetic moment of complex ion
97. The wavelength associated with a photon having
[Cr(H2O)6]3+ will be (Atomic No. of Cr : 24) mass 6.6 × 10–31 kg is
(1) 3 BM (2) 8 BM (1) 1.28 pm (2) 2.24 pm
(3) 3.33 pm (4) 33.3 pm
(3) 15 BM (4) 24 BM
98. The incorrect statement regarding CaCO3 among
90. For the reaction, A(g) → 2B(g) the following is
(1) CaCO3 is insoluble in water whereas
U = 2 kcal, S = 15 cal K–1 at 300 K
Ca(HCO3)2 is soluble
G for the above reaction is (2) It decomposes to slaked lime upon heating to
(1) –1.5 kcal mol–1 (2) –1.9 kcal mol–1 1200 K.
(3) Carbon dioxide is liberated upon reaction of
(3) –3.5 kcal mol–1 (4) –3.8 kcal mol–1 CaCO3 with dil HCl
91. Example of emulsion is (4) It is widely used in manufacturing of high
(1) Paints (2) Dust quality paper
99. The oxidation numbers of four sulphur atoms in
(3) Butter (4) Froth
S 4 O26 − are
92. Select the correct relation for the reaction
(1) +6, +6, –2 and –2 (2) +5, 0, 0, and +5
2A + B → C. (r is rate of reaction)
(3) 0, 0, +2 and +2 (4) +4, +2, +2 and +4
1 [A] [C] 100. Which among the following has highest
(1) r = (2) r =
2 t t conductivity at 298.15 K?
(1) 0.1 M HAc (2) 0.01 M KCl
[C] 2[A]
(3) r = – (4) r = (3) 0.1 M HCl (4) 0.01 M HAc
t t

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CST-2 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

BOTANY
SECTION-A 108. Which one of the following representations
101. Mark the defining features of all life forms. shows diadelphous condition of stamens?

(1) Growth (2) Self-consciousness (1) (2) A2 + 4

(3) Reproduction (4) Metabolism (3) A() (4) A(9) + 1
102. Which of the following is not the taxonomic 109. Meristematic tissues are not present in
category related to wheat? (1) Axillary bud
(1) Poaceae (2) Poales (2) Intercalary position
(3) Dicotyledonae (4) Angiospermae (3) Closed vascular bundle
103. Which of the following is mobile electron carrier (4) Root tip
between complex III and IV in ETS of 110. The only dividing cells present in the bark of tree
mitochondria? is of
(1) UQ (2) Cyt c (1) Phellem (2) Phellogen
(3) Cyt a (4) Cyt a3 (3) Phelloderm (4) Vascular cambium

104. The process which is crucial to success of the 111. Select the incorrect statement from the
plant breeding objective and requires careful following.
scientific evaluation of the progeny is (1) Cell theory states that all cells arise from pre-
existing cells
(1) Evaluation and selection of parents
(2) Schleiden and Schwann both were German
(2) Cross hybridisation among the selected botanist
parents
(3) Some cells in plants become dead at maturity
(3) Selection and testing of superior (4) Rudolf Virchow first explained Omnis cellula-
recombinants e-cellula
(4) Testing, release and commercialization of 112. The ribosomes having 60S and 40S subunits are
new cultivars. found
105. All of the following are examples of predation, (1) Attached to the nuclear membrane
except (2) Around the thylakoids in chloroplast
(1) Herbivores on plants (3) Attached to the mesosome
(2) Tiger on deer (4) Inside the nucleolus and rough endoplasmic
reticulum
(3) Sparrows which eat seeds
113. All of the following are the functions of cell wall,
(4) Cuscuta growing on hedge plants except
106. Which of the following pyramids are upright? (1) Providing shape to the cell
(a) Pyramid of biomass in grassland ecosystem (2) Protecting cell from mechanical damage
(b) Pyramid of energy in pond ecosystem (3) Helping in cell-to-cell interaction
(c) Pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem (4) Facilitating active transport of ions
(1) Only (b) (2) Only (a) and (c) 114. Archaebacteria that are found in gut of buffaloes
(3) Only (c) (4) All (a), (b) and (c) are
107. Opposite phyllotaxy and valvate aestivation of (1) Placed in the domain Bacteria
petals are seen in (2) Known as halophiles
(1) Calotropis (2) Solanum (3) Responsible for production of biogas
(3) Allium (4) Mustard (4) Heterotrophic in nature

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-2 (Code-A)

115. Pigments of _____ are identical to those of 123. Read the following statements and select the
higher plants. correct option.
Select the correct option to fill in the blank. Statement A: Delay in flowering is caused due to
deficiency of N, S, Mo.
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Euglenoids
Statement B: Nitrifying bacteria are mostly
(3) Diatoms (4) Dinoflagellates heterotrophs.
116. Select the incorrect statement for slime moulds. (1) Only statement A is correct
(1) These are saprophytic in nature (2) Only statement B is correct
(2) Under unfavourable conditions they form (3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
Plasmodium (4) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Their spores possess true walls 124. Centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm during
(4) Their spores can survive for many years (1) S phase (2) G0 phase
117. Choose the odd one w.r.t. recessive traits of (3) G2 phase (4) G1 phase
pea. 125. During cell cycle
(1) White flower (1) Major checkpoint is present at G1 → S
(2) Constricted pod transition
(3) Green pod (2) If a cell does not divide it will enter G2 phase
(3) Anaphase promoting complex (APC) is
(4) Wrinkled seed
involved in damaging the DNA
118. A pink flowered snapdragon plant is crossed with
(4) Interphase lasts for less than 5% of the total
red flowered snapdragon plant. What percentage duration
of progeny will be white coloured?
126. Which among the following plant growth regulator
(1) 25% (2) 50% is derivative of carotenoids?
(3) 75% (4) 0% (1) Gibberellic acids (2) Indole-3-acetic acid
119. Select the wrong statement for sickle-cell (3) Abscisic acid (4) Kinetin
anaemia. 127. In which stage of sewage treatment the masses
(1) It is an autosomal recessive disorder of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to
form mesh like structure called flocs?
(2) The defect is caused by substitution of valine
(1) Physical process
by glutamic acid
(2) Biological treatment
(3) The disease is controlled by a single pair of
allele (3) Physico-chemical process
(4) Tertiary treatment
(4) Heterozygous individuals appear apparently
unaffected 128. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Zygote ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
develops
120. Select the homosporous plant. into
Embryo
(1) Cycas (2) Selaginella
(2) Ovules ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Seeds
develop
into
(3) Dryopteris (4) Salvinia
(3) Ovary ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
develops
121. Which among the following are the first terrestrial into
Fruit
plants to possess vascular tissues?
(4) Integument ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
develops
into
Fruit wall
(1) Bryophytes
(2) Pteridophytes 129. In typical angiosperms, the mature embryo sac
has A antipodal cells, B polar nuclei and
(3) Angiosperms C egg cell.
(4) Gymnosperms Select the correct option to fill in the blanks.
122. Which of the following elements is not (1) A - three, B - two, C - one
remobilized in plants? (2) A - two, B - two, C - one
(1) Calcium (2) Phosphorus (3) A - three, B - one, C - one
(3) Potassium (4) Nitrogen (4) A - two, B - three, C - one

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CST-2 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

130. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. C3 cycle. 137. Nodes and internodes are not present in
(1) The primary acceptor of CO2 is a five carbon (1) Offset of Eichhornia
compound
(2) Pneumatophore of Rhizophora
(2) The first stable product is oxaloacetic acid
(3) 3 ATPs are consumed to fix one CO2 (3) Bulbil of Agave
(4) It occurs in all photosynthetic plants (4) Rhizome of ginger
131. How many nucleosomes are present in the 138. Select the incorrect match from the following.
nucleus of diploid eukaryotic cell which possess
6.6 × 109 bp? (1) Stele – All tissues inner to the
(1) 33 × 106 (2) 6.6 × 106 endodermis
(3) 6.6 × 10 9 (4) 3.3 × 109 (2) Casparian – Waxy material
132. Which of the given nitrogenous bases are strip
common in both DNA and RNA?
a. Thymine (3) Endodermis – Parenchymatous
b. Uracil (4) Conjunctive – Sclerenchymatous
c. Adenine tissue
d. Cytosine
139. How many of the following organisms have
(1) a and b (2) b and c
flagella with 9 + 2 arrangement of axonemal
(3) c and d (4) a and d
microtubules?
133. Which of the given enzymes facilitates opening of
DNA helix during DNA replication? Spirillum, Gonyaulax, Euglena, Paramoecium,
(1) DNA helicase (2) DNA polymerase Nostoc, Trypanosoma, Chlamydomonas.
(3) DNA ligase (4) Primase (1) Six (2) Four
134. In the process of transcription in eukaryotes,
RNA polymerase III transcribes (3) Two (4) Five
(1) Precursor of mRNA 140. Identify the wrongly matched pair.
(2) 5S, 5.8S, rRNA (1) Trypanosoma – Flagellated parasite
(3) snRNA and 18S rRNA
(2) Amoeba – Lacks locomotory
(4) tRNA
structure
135. Which of the given is an ex-situ conservation
strategy of threatened animals and plants? (3) Plasmodium – Causes malaria
(1) Wildlife sanctuary (2) Wildlife safari park
(4) Paramoecium – Has gullet
(3) National park (4) Biosphere reserve
SECTION-B 141. Which of the given is not related to aneuploidy?

136. State the following statements as true (T) or (1) Arise due to failure of segregation of
false (F) and select the correct option. chromatids during cell cycle
A. Transition zone is the outermost part of (2) There is increase in whole set of
biosphere reserve. chromosomes
B. India has more than 1,200 species of birds
because most of land area of our country lies (3) Exemplified by Down’s syndrome
in tropics. (4) Involves gain or loss of one or a few
C. Greenland (71°N) in arctic area possess 105 chromosomes
species of birds.
142. Select the incorrect statement regarding
A B C bryophytes.
(1) T T T (1) Includes mosses and liverworts
(2) F F F (2) Sex organs are multicellular
(3) T T F (3) Antherozoids are biflagellated
(4) F T F (4) Gametophyte is not free-living

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-2 (Code-A)

143. Select the incorrect match. (1) Only statement A is correct

(1) Uphill – Active transport (2) Only statement B is correct
movement (3) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Highly – Symport (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
selective 147. Read the given statements and select the
(3) ATP – Facilitated diffusion correct option.
requirement Statement A: The industries which produce SO2
(4) Transport – Antiport as a by product must have scrubbing mechanism
saturates installed in them.
Statement B: Ahmed Khan is associated with
144. Match the following column-I with column-II and
select the correct option. integrated organic farming.
(1) Only statement A is correct
Column-I Column-II
(2) Only statement B is correct
a. Overcome apical (i) Gibberellins
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
dominance
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
b. Break bud (ii) Auxin (NAA and
dormancy 2,4-D) 148. The phenomenon through which certain
pollutants get accumulated in tissues in
c. Speed up the (iii) Cytokinin
increasing concentrations along the food chain is
malting process
called
d. Induce flowering (iv) Ethylene (1) Eutrophication
in litchi
(2) Global warming
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) Biomagnification
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) Bioprospecting
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
149. Only some organisms are capable of maintaining
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) homeostasis in the changing environment. One
145. Consider the following features observed in a of the examples is
plant
(1) Birds
I. Sticky pollen grains
(2) Lower plants
II. Colourful flowers
(3) Majority of animals
III. Fragrant flowers full of nectar
(4) Zooplanktons
The flowers of this plant are most likely pollinated
150. Read the following statements and select the
by
correct option.
(1) Wind
Statement A: Primary productivity depends on
(2) Water
the plant species inhabiting a particular area.
(3) Bee
Statement B: The available biomass for the
(4) Lemur
consumption to herbivores and decomposers is
146. Read the following statements and select the also primary productivity.
correct option.
(1) Only statement A is correct
Statement A: Biogas is a mixture of gases which
(2) Only statement B is correct
predominantly contains methane.
Statement B: Baculoviruses are free living fungi (3) Both statements A and B are correct
that are very common in root ecosystem. (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

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CST-2 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 155. More than ___ percent of the world livestock
population is in India and China.
151. Read the following statements and select the Select the option that fills the blank correctly.
correct option. (1) 50 (2) 70
Statement A: Oxygen is utilised by the (3) 60 (4) 25
organisms to form complex molecules like
156. Secretion of which of the following male sex
proteins, carbohydrates, fatty acids, etc., to accessory ducts/glands is not essential for
derive energy to perform various activities. maturation and motility of sperms?
Statement B: Respiration is an anabolic process (1) Epididymis (2) Vas deferens
in which there is process of exchange of O 2 from (3) Seminal vesicle (4) Cowper’s gland
the atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cells.
157. Complete the analogy w.r.t. ploidy of cells
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct present in reproductive system of humans.
(2) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect Haploid cell : First polar body :: Diploid cell : ___
(3) Only statement (A) is correct (1) Second polar body
(4) Only statement (B) is correct (2) Secondary oocyte
152. Select the odd one w.r.t. elimination of main (3) Secondary spermatocyte
nitrogenous waste. (4) Granulosa cells in secondary follicle
(1) Cartilaginous fishes (2) Bony fishes 158. Which of the following triggers the release of
oxytocin from the maternal pituitary gland during
(3) Aquatic insects (4) Aquatic amphibians
parturition?
153. Match column I with column II and choose the (1) Foetal ejection reflex
correct option.
(2) Release of amniotic fluid from vagina
Column I Column II (3) Increased secretion of oestrogen
a. Amoeba (i) Presence of (4) Increased secretion of progesterone
tentacles for 159. Match items in column-I with those in column-II
capturing its prey and choose the correct option.

b. Paramoecium (ii) Streaming of Column-I Column-II

protoplasm a. Placenta (i) Finger-like
projections appear on
c. Hydra (iii) Presence of cilia
the trophoblast after
that helps in the
implantation
movement of food
through cytopharynx b. Chorionic villi (ii) Blastocyst becomes
embedded in uterus
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) and it leads to
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) pregnancy
154. Select the incorrect statement. c. Stem cells (iii) Structural and
(1) All locomotions are movements but all functional unit
between foetus and
movements are not locomotions
maternal body
(2) Movement and locomotion cannot be studied
separately d. Implantation (iv) Present in inner cell
mass which have
(3) Methods of locomotion performed by animals potency to form all
vary only with their habitat body tissues
(4) Locomotion is generally for search of food,
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
shelter, mate, suitable breeding grounds,
favourable climatic conditions, etc. (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-2 (Code-A)

160. Read the following statements carefully and 165. A patient suffering from ADA deficiency can be
choose the option with only incorrect permanently cured using how many of the given
statements. treatments?
(a) All multicellular animals exhibit the same (a) Enzyme replacement therapy
pattern of organisation of cells. (b) Bone marrow transplantation
(b) Organ level of organisation is exhibited by
(c) Infusion of ADA cDNA carrying genetically
members of Platyhelminthes and other higher
engineered lymphocytes
phyla where tissues are grouped together to
form organs. (1) Zero

(c) Organ systems in different groups of animals (2) One

exhibit various patterns of complexities. (3) Two
(d) In all multicellular animals which have organ (4) Three
level of body organisation, a complete
166. How many of the structures given below in the
digestive system has two opening, mouth
box are not present in the forebrain?
and anus.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) Pons, Thalamus, Cerebrum, Medulla, Corpora
quadrigemina
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)
161. Which of the following animals is a gregarious (1) One (2) Two
pest? (3) Three (4) Four
(1) Laccifer (2) Aedes 167. In a hypothetical scenario, an individual has
(3) Locusta (4) Limulus hypersecretion of a hormone ‘X’. Due to this
condition this individual’s blood Ca++ levels are
162. Read the following statements A and B w.r.t.
persistently high.
chordates and choose the correct answer from
the following given options. The hormones X and Y, together play a
significant role in maintaining the calcium levels
Statement A: Protochordates are exclusively
in the body.
marine and they have notochord present only in
larval tail. Identify X and Y from the given options.

Statement B: In all vertebrates, notochord is X Y

replaced by bony vertebral column in the adult.
(1) TCT PTH
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (2) PTH TCT

(3) Only statement A is correct (3) PTH Thyroxine

(4) Only statement B is correct
(4) Thyroxine Calcitriol
163. Select the odd one w.r.t. copper releasing IUDs.
168. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is known as a natural
(1) CuT (2) Cu7
genetic engineer because
(3) LNG – 20 (4) Multiload 375
(1) It can deliver its Ti plasmid in the animal cells
164. The female who cannot produce ovum, but can
(2) It enters into animal cells and transform them
provide suitable environment for fertilisation and
into tumor cells
further development could be assisted to have
children through ART. The preferred ART in this (3) It delivers a T-DNA fragment into plant cells
case would be that integrates with host cell’s chromosome

(1) ICSI (2) GIFT (4) It is able to transform all eukaryotic cells into
cancerous cells
(3) IUT (4) In vitro fertilisation

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CST-2 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

169. DNA ligase is known as molecular glue as it links 174. Epithelium which lines the walls of blood vessels
two DNA fragments by forming also lines
(1) Hydrogen bonds (1) Tubular parts of nephron
(2) Phosphodiester bonds (2) Air sacs of lungs
(3) Glycosidic bonds (3) Stomach
(4) Disulphide bonds (4) Ducts of salivary glands
170. Identify a restriction endonuclease which makes 175. Cube-like cells having microvilli are found in the
cuts away from the centre of recognition epithelium of
sequence. (1) Intestine
(1) SmaI
(2) Bronchioles
(2) EcoRV
(3) Surface of skin
(3) HindII
(4) PCT
(4) EcoRI
176. Dental formula for adult human is
171. An English economist, who worked on human
2123
populations and concluded that population are (1)
2123
stable in size except for seasonal fluctuations,
because natural resources are limited and nature 1121
(2)
keeps control is 1121
(1) Alfred Russel Wallace 0021
(3)
(2) A. I. Oparin 0021

(3) Charles Darwin 0011

(4)
(4) Thomas Malthus 0011

172. Assertion (A): New life forms of microbes are 177. A healthy individual has ___ gms of haemoglobin
appearing in a time scale of months or years and in every 1000 mL of blood. Select the option that
not centuries. fills the blank correctly.

Reason (R): The life span of microbes is less as (1) 12 – 16

compared to higher organisms. (2) 120 – 160
In the light of above statements, choose the (3) 16 – 20
correct answer from the following options. (4) 1.2 – 1.6
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
178. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. a straw
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true coloured viscous fluid in blood.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (1) Nearly 55% of blood
correct explanation of (A)
(2) It consists of 90-92% water
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(3) It contains large amount of minerals
correct explanation of (A)
(4) Proteins contribute 6-8% of it
173. Select the odd one w.r.t. theories for the origin of
179. The graveyard of RBCs is
life.
(1) Thymus
(1) Panspermia theory
(2) Chemical evolution theory (2) Lymph node

(3) Darwinian theory (3) Liver

(4) Theory of biogenesis (4) Spleen

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-2 (Code-A)

180. Read the given statements and select the Identify the labelled bonds A and B and select
correct option. the correct option.
Statement A: Each human tooth is embedded in (A) (B)
a socket of jaw bone and this type of attachment (1) Hydrogen bond Disulphide bond
is called pleurodont.
(2) Hydrogen bond Peptide bond
Statement B: The upper surface of tongue has
small projections called papillae, all of which bear (3) Peptide bond Hydrogen bond
taste buds. (4) Disulphide bond Hydrogen bond
(1) Both statements A and B are correct 184. Select the correct option to complete the
(2) Only statement A is correct analogy w.r.t. cofactors.
(3) Only statement B is correct Haem : Catalase :: Zinc : ___

(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (1) Peroxidase

(2) NAD
181. Early Greeks like Hippocrates as well as Indian
(3) Carboxypeptidase
Ayurveda system of medicine asserted on
(4) NADP
(1) Germ theory of disease
185. The most abundant element in human body w.r.t
(2) Balance of certain ‘humors’ percentage weight is
(3) Theory of continuity of germplasm (1) Oxygen
(4) Theory of use and disuse (2) Carbon
182. Good humor hypothesis of health was (3) Nitrogen
disapproved by/through (4) Hydrogen
(a) Discovery of blood circulation by William
SECTION-B
Harvey
(b) Demonstration of normal body temperature in 186. An organism ‘X’ in which the gaseous exchange,
persons with black bile i.e., intake of O2 and giving out of CO2 takes
place between blood capillaries of skin and moist
(c) Discovery of blood grouping
surface film. Identify the organism ‘X’ and select
(d) Demonstration of normal body temperature in the correct option.
persons with yellow bile (1) Periplaneta
(1) (a) and (b) (2) Pila
(2) (b) and (c) (3) Pheretima
(3) (c) and (d) (4) Psittacula
(4) (a) and (d) 187. Consider the given statements and select the
option that correctly states them as true (T) or
183. Consider the figure given below false (F).
A. Animals accumulate ammonia, urea, uric
acid, carbon dioxide, water and ions like Na+,
K+, Cl–, sulphate, etc., only by metabolic
activities.
B. Kidneys do not play any significant role in
+
removal of NH3 ions.
C. Ammonia produced by metabolism is
converted into urea in the liver of sharks.
D. The most toxic form of nitrogenous waste
requires large amount of water for its
elimination.
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CST-2 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

A B C D 192. Assertion (A): During molecular diagnosis using

a radioactive tagged probe, the mutated gene
(1) T T T T
does not appear on the photographic film.
(2) T F F F Reason (R): The single stranded DNA or RNA
(3) T F F T which are used as probes have complementarity
with the sample DNA but not with the mutated
(4) F T T T
gene.
188. Read the following statements A and B and In the light of the above statements, choose the
choose the correct answer from the options correct answer from the options given below.
given below.
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
Statement A: Birds in captivity can be made to
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
lay eggs throughout the year. In this case, laying
correct explanation of (A)
egg is not related with reproduction but is a
commercial exploitation for human welfare. (3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
Statements B: Cyclical changes in the activities
of primary and secondary sex organs during (4) (A) is true but (R) is false
reproductive phase in non-primate females is 193. Arrange the following in the correct sequence
called menstrual cycle. w.r.t. mechanism of vision.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (a) Image formed on the retina
(2) Only statement A is correct (b) Potential differences are generated in the
(3) Only statement B is correct rods and cones
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (c) Action potentials in the ganglionic cells
189. Bioluminescence is well-marked in through the bipolar cells
(1) Fasciola (2) Ctenoplana (d) Light induces dissociation of retinal from
opsin
(3) Ancylostoma (4) Limulus
190. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. animals and (1) d → b → c → a
presence of structures in them. (2) a → c → b → d

(1) Torpedo – Electric organs (3) b → c → d → a

(2) Clarias – Air bladder (4) c → d → b → a

194. Complete the analogy by selecting the correct
(3) Canis – Mammary gland
option.
(4) Petromyzon – Presence of scales
-cells of islets of Langerhans : Glucagon ::
191. Read the following statements carefully and -cells of islets of Langerhans : ___
choose the incorrect one.
(1) Adrenaline
(1) As long as the mother breast-feeds the child
(2) Corticoids
fully, chances of conception are almost nil
(3) Insulin
(2) Pelvic Inflammatory Diseases (PIDs),
stillbirth, infertility are some of the (4) Somatostatin
complications of STIs 195. Which of the following does not involve use of
(3) Saheli - the new oral contraceptive for female PCR?
contains a non-steroidal preparation and is (1) Detection of mutations in genes
called ‘once a week’ pill.
(2) Diagnosis of genetic disorders
(4) Coitus interrupts, one of the barrier methods,
(3) Detection of HIV in suspected AIDS patients
prevent the ovum and sperms from physically
meeting (4) Separation and isolation of DNA fragments

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-2 (Code-A)

196. If in a linear DNA of 12 kb size, two recognition (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
sites of BamHI are present 4 kb distance apart (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
and one of them is at 4 kb distance from one
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
end. Then, how many bands will be obtained on
separation of DNA fragments using agarose gel (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
electrophoresis, assuming complete digestion by 199. How many of the factors given below in the box
BamHI? are necessary for achieving good health?
(1) Three (2) Two
Vaccination, Proper disposal of wastes,
(3) One (4) Four Maintenance of hygiene in food and water,
197. In a population which is in Hardy-Weinberg Regular exercise, Control of vectors
equilibrium, 190 individuals out of 1000
individuals are showing dominant phenotype for (1) Two
a character. Then, what will be the frequency of (2) Three
heterozygotes for this character? (3) Four
(1) 0.3 (4) Five
(2) 0.18
200. Read the statements A and B carefully and select
(3) 0.7 the correct option.
(4) 0.4 Statement A: Co-enzymes are tightly bound to
198. Match column I with column II and select the the apoenzyme.
correct option.
Statement B: Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
Column I Column II is transiently associated with the apoenzyme.

(a) Fibrinogen (i) Coagulation of blood (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(b) Albumin (ii) Defense mechanism of
body (3) Only statement A is correct

(c) Globulin (iii) Osmotic balance (4) Only statement B is correct

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