Hi Friends,

Following are the various questions collected for UCF by various peoples combined into 1 document.

And in this document I have attached three files, for ITIL, Avaya and Router Based Questions .

Kindly go through the following link for telecom based questions:

http://class10e.com/TIA/exams/tt0-101/

ITIL questi ons.zi p

Avaya.zip

Router_Questions.zip

1.which of these is multicast ip.

-192.168.10.10.1

-192.168.255.255

-192.168.0.255

-192.168.0.15

2.how many networks and hosts are there when 199.106.14.14.0 is

subnetted with

a/24 mask.

-6 networks 64 hosts
and 3 other similar options

3.129.160.0.0/19 has how many valid subnets and valid hosts.

-16 subnets and 2046 hosts.

and 3 other similar options

4.which of these automates ip,ip adress,subnet.

-dhcp

and 3 other similar options

5.which will deny telnet to subnet 10.10.1.0/24?

-10.10.1.0.255.255.255.0

and 3 other similar options

6.how many no.of n/ws and hosts per n/w for 195.106.14.0/24

-2 ntwrks 254 hosts

and 3 other similar options

7.calculate summary address for 172.16.24.0/24, 172.16.25.0/24,

172.16.26.0/24

172.16.27.0/24?

-172.16.25.0/24
and 3 other similar options

8.find subnet address for host address 15.25.25.25/18?

-15.0.0.0/18

and 3 other similar options

9."show ip route"IGRP is indicated by?

-R

-I

-O

-D

10.PCM 31 contains?

-FAS only

-CAS

-CRC-4

-ALL

11.full form of ADPCM

12.voice grade telephone freq?

-0-4000hz
-and 3 other similar options

12.modern communication concept to share ,provide access to

manyclients by

showingset of lines?

-IVR

-ACD

-Trunk

-Voicemail

13.push button on phone produces?

-Pulse

-2 Frequencies.

-and 2 other similar options

14-which uses out of band signalling?

-DTMF

-anlogue phone lines

-Isdn PRI

-Unchanneled
15.Human speaking frequensy?

-20khz

and 3 other similar options

16.WAN encapsulation type?

-T1

-DSL

-PPP

-Frame Relay

17.command used to display PPP traffic on cisco?

-debug PPP packets

-debug PPP

-debug PPP negotiation

-debug PPP authorisation

18.point to point connection betwn 2 offices which,PPP subprotocol

negotiates

authentication?

-ISDN

-SLIP

-NCP
-LcP

19.distance for fast ethernet?

-100m

-1000m with fibre optic.

-200m

-4th option don't remember

20.default TTL value for IP packets?

-32

-64

-128

-255

21.Mac address consists of?

ans:vendor code and serial no.

22.which channel is used by ISDN BRI?

-2d+b

-23d+b

-2b+d

-23b+d
23.In TCP Ip which layer is used to equal to transport layer/

-Application

-host to host

-N/w access

-internet

24.bridges are placed in which layer of OSI?

-data link

-physical layer

-n/w layer

-all layers

25.which layer in OSI is for error correction?

26.which 2 vtp models can save VLAN information on VLAN data

base(vlan.dat)?

-server client

-client & Transparent

-server & transparent

-server,client and transparent

27.which vtp models save VLAN information on both flash and

running configuration files?

-server

-client

-transparent

-all above

28.which of these are not come in ITIL publication IIIV3?

-optimization

-service transition

-service design

-service strategy.

29.Statements true not true about "events"?{related to ITIL}

30.which of the following are not stored in DML?

-master copies of Software

-backups of application

-software licences

-backup of contro documentation

31.Each time VTP modifies VLAN configuration,VTP server increases

current

config by?

-1

-0

-2

-10

32.best grounding point ext ground of Ac powered PBX containingStart

trunks.

-3 wired ground

-cold water PVC

-steel rod six feet grounding

-building I-beam resting ground.

33.which quality of service involves end to end request for n/w

resources?
-RSVP

-Interservice

-difference service

-802.11Q

34.codec stands for

Ans:coder decoder

35.high codec complexity NM-HDV (TI54Q)supports how many voice

channels per DSP?

-8

-8

-2

-4

36. difference between G729 & G729a?

-improved speech performance in g729a

-g729 higher complexity

-g729 has high bit rate

-g729a has echo cancellation

37. Once you have defined interesting traffic with the data list
command, you then must associate on ISDN phone no. with the next
hop address which IOS command should you use?

38. Each port of a layer-2 switch is specified with how many layers of
OSI Model?

39. On a Trunk link VLAN’s is maintained as native VLAN when STP

BPDU message is generated and sent over the trunk which runs
802.1Q?

40. Range of VLAN ID?

41. Which is the following is the best grounding point for the external
ground of an AC-Powered PBX containing ground start trunks?

42. Which 2 recommendations of a network assessment allow Avaya IP

Phones to boot up properly with dynamic addressing?

-DHCP site specific option 167 being set up correctly.

- DHCP site specific option 176 being set up correctly.

-using fast STP(FSTP) at port level.

-turning off STP(STP) at switch level.

43. Which of the following is the correct description of the 4 P’s of

service design.
d) The four major areas that need to be considered in the design of effective Service Management

44. (S87XX) Platform is available as the net new system in which

configuration?

45. Default starting TTL value when trace route comment is

originated?

46. Which of the following is a N/W function of introduced in ITIL V3?

47. Which of the following is correct set of steps for continual service
improvement CSI Model?

- device a strategy design solution.

48.Statments are not included in Access mngmt?

- verifying the identity of users requesting access to services.

- setting the rights or privileges to systems to allow access to

authorized users.

- defining security policies for system access.

- monitoring the availability of the system that users should have

access to.

49. why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to

improve services.

- to validate,direct,justify and intervene.

- to validate,measure,monitor,change

- to validate,plan,act,improve

- to validate,assign resources,purchase technology and train people.

50. Find out valid subnets and host per subnet for the following ip
address 129.160.0.0/20?

51. 192.168.15.19/28 host address and subnet mask.

52. CAS-signalling is?

53. CSS-Channel control signalling?

54. firewall is in which layer?

-transport layer

- network layer.

-application layer

-all layers.

55.Call collision on loop known as?

56.ICMP data size?

57.Layer 2 encapsulation of WAN Link?

58. Hanshakes of PPP?

59.Which function transforms signal into frequency domain?

60.Name of the approach that ITIL V3 has introduces is to?

61. What ports need to be opened in firewall at Home office to allow

the remote IP end pts voice communication ?
62.Which of following represent a typical 3 layer hierarchical inter N/W
model?

63.When call is placed,it is routed toward destination which call legs

are created on that router for call short leg,long,inbound call &
Outbound?

64.which 2 media resources are available only in hardware

- audio conferencing.

-MOH

-voice termination

-MTP , transcoding.

65. When configuring a VoIP dial peer, which CMD is used to specify
the address of the terminating router

-Gateway destination port, pattern, address.

66.FAW stands for?

67. When BGP summarization is configured on router router(conft-

route)#aggregate address n/w subnet mask,how the routes would be
advertised to its neighbours?

-only subnets are addressed.

68. When an analog phone user of a PBX places a PSTN caller on

hold,which music on hold source will the PSTN caller hear?

-PSTN Hold.

-N/W hold.

- Gateway hold.
- PBX hold.

70.Telephone signal are?

- Full duplex.

71. in India we follow ___ organization standard?

-TIA.

72.A type of control used on T! lines where the on and off hook
signaling transmitted over same channel as voice path is called?

73. Name for condition in which 3rd person calls are heard?

- cross talk.

74. ISDN Bchannel __ speed KBPS?

- 64.

75. Data across OSI data link layer is called as Frame.

76. Data across OSI Transport layer is called as Segment.

77. Layer 2 of OSI model,which component connects a host to n/w

media?

-NIC

78.Vlans are stored in switch as which file name?

-Vlan.dat

79.CMD to display the vlan.dat file location on switch?

-sh flash.

80. Benefits of VLAN trunking protocol?

81.Error detection is done in which layer?

-data link layer.

82.telnet port no?

83.Key characteristics of PPP connection?

84.Max. distance of FA?

85. TTL Value default which is used by router for all its IP pkts?

64

86.Bit rate of digitized voice using Pulse Code Modulation(PCM)?.

-8000.

-32000

-56000

-64000

87.

1-find out subnet and host for ip address 129.160.0.0/19

2- B-ISDN stands for

3- ip tepephony uses

a- circuit

b-packet

c-a&b

D none
4- cpe stand for

5- E & m signaling uses which protacol to seize a trunk

a- ground start

b-loop start

c-immediate start

D- none

6-method of transmission at same time

a- full duplex

b-half duplex

c- simplex

d-none

7-when ping and traceroute commands executed ,generates data

packets

a-IP

b-ICMP

c-ping

d-traceroute

8-to decrease noise and distrotion a system be properly

 a- Biased

b-Grounded

c- -48v

D- provided with ups

9-public switched telephone n/w is

a-packet

b-circuit

c-none

d-a and b

10.pcm uses which type of digital signaling level

a- T1

b- T3

c-dsi

d-dso

11.max distance of fast ethernet

12.tcp operates at what layer of osi

13.whcih isdn device converts the 4-wire BRI signals from s/t interface

into two -wire signals of a U interface .

a- TeI

b-NT-2

c-TA

d-NT-1

14-function of rtcp

15-which of following can be placed in route list

16-poorly crimpled connection result in which analog audio

tranmission impariments

a- echo

b- delay

c-noise

d-crosstalk

17-whcih 2 vtp modes can save vlan info in vlan database

a-server,client

b-server and transparent

c-server,client and transparent

 d-client and transparent

18-3 types of metrics in CSI

19-new function in ITIL v3

1.which of these is multicast ip.

-192.168.10.10.1

-192.168.255.255

-192.168.0.255

-192.168.0.15

2.how many networks and hosts are there when 199.106.14.14.0 is

subnetted with

a/24 mask.

-6 networks 64 hosts

and 3 other similar options

3.129.160.0.0/19 has how many valid subnets and valid hosts.

-16 subnets and 2046 hosts.

and 3 other similar options

4.which of these automates ip,ip adress,subnet.

-dhcp

and 3 other similar options

5.which will deny telnet to subnet 10.10.1.0/24?

-10.10.1.0.255.255.255.0

and 3 other similar options

6.how many no.of n/ws and hosts per n/w for 195.106.14.0/24

-2 ntwrks 254 hosts

and 3 other similar options

7.calculate summary address for 172.16.24.0/24, 172.16.25.0/24,

172.16.26.0/24

172.16.27.0/24?

-172.16.25.0/24

and 3 other similar options

8.find subnet address for host address 15.25.25.25/18?

-15.0.0.0/18

and 3 other similar options

9."show ip route"IGRP is indicated by?

-R

-I

-O

-D

10.PCM 31 contains?

-FAS only

-CAS

-CRC-4

-ALL

11.full form of ADPCM

12.voice grade telephone freq?

-0-4000hz

-and 3 other similar options

12.modern communication concept to share ,provide access to

manyclients by

showingset of lines?
-IVR

-ACD

-Trunk

-Voicemail

13.push button on phone produces?

-Pulse

-2 Frequencies.

-and 2 other similar options

14-which uses out of band signalling?

-DTMF

-anlogue phone lines

-Isdn PRI

-Unchanneled

15.Human speaking frequensy?

-20khz

and 3 other similar options

16.WAN encapsulation type?

-T1
-DSL

-PPP

-Frame Relay

17.command used to display PPP traffic on cisco?

-debug PPP packets

-debug PPP

-debug PPP negotiation

-debug PPP authorisation

18.point to point connection betwn 2 offices which,PPP subprotocol

negotiates

authentication?

-ISDN

-SLIP

-NCP

-LcP

19.distance for fast ethernet?

-100m

-1000m with fibre optic.

-200m
-4th option don't remember

20.default TTL value for IP packets?

-32

-64

-128

-255

21.Mac address consists of?

ans:vendor code and serial no.

22.which channel is used by ISDN BRI?

-2d+b

-23d+b

-2b+d

-23b+d

23.In TCP Ip which layer is used to equal to transport layer/

-Application

-host to host

-N/w access

-internet
24.bridges are placed in which layer of OSI?

-data link

-physical layer

-n/w layer

-all layers

25.which layer in OSI is for error correction?

26.which 2 vtp models can save VLAN information on VLAN data

base(vlan.dat)?

-server client

-client & Transparent

-server & transparent

-server,client and transparent

27.which vtp models save VLAN information on both flash and

running configuration files?

-server

-client

-transparent

-all above
28.which of these are not come in ITIL publication IIIV3?

-optimization

-service transition

-service design

-service strategy.

29.Statements true not true about "events"?{related to ITIL}

30.which of the following are not stored in DML?

-master copies of Software

-backups of application

-software licences

-backup of contro documentation

31.Each time VTP modifies VLAN configuration,VTP server increases

current

config by?

-1

-0

-2

-10
32.best grounding point ext ground of Ac powered PBX containingStart
trunks.

-3 wired ground

-cold water PVC

-steel rod six feet grounding

-building I-beam resting ground.

33.which quality of service involves end to end request for n/w

resources?

-RSVP

-Interservice

-difference service

-802.11Q

34.codec stands for

Ans:coder decoder

35.high codec complexity NM-HDV (TI54Q)supports how many voice

channels per DSP?

-8

-8

-2
-4

36.difference between G729 & G729a?

-improved sppech performance in g729a

-g729 higher complexity

-g729 has high bit rate

-g729a has echo cancellation

1. Command to display CHAP authentication.

2.MSS of TCP data.

3.ICMP protocol number.

4.CDP between two devices provides what information?

A. Device Identifiers
B. Capabilities list
C. Platform
D. Route identifier
E. Neighbor traffic data

5.Priority number by PVST to run VLAN 1.

6.Hand shake in PPP.

-->1 way,2 way,3 way,4 way

7.Tools to check polarity of line.

8.How bits are transferred in serial communication?

9.Nyquist Rate

10.Off hook is ______ signalling.

-->supervisory,addressing,seizure,information.

11.Value added service for KTS.

-->I/O interface,voicemail,KSU,DTMF

12.SQNR stands for ________.

13.Characteristics of frame relay point to point subinterface.

14.PRC means.

-->primary reference clock,primary router clock,physical reference

clock,path reference clock.
15.LCR in telephone system.-->least cost routing.

16.Important factors when subnetting.

-->No of N/W's required,How many devices require DHCP,How many

clients per N/W.1 more option was there.

17.Which bit represent N/W portion.

-->0,1,10,11 or 01

18.How to log into router in privilege mode?

19.Impedance mismatch produces?

20.Push button produces how many frequencies?

21.RADIUS uses which protocol and protocol number?

22.From the following which are supervisory signals:

-->on hook,off hook,call waiting,call busy,1 more option was there.

This question was having multiple answers.

23. Error correction is in which layer in OSI?

24.which are the three wild cards from the following

--> '*', '!', '.', '$'

25.Data across OSI N/W layer is called ?

26.IP 156.233.42.56 is subnetted by a mask of 7 bits.How many

subnets and host per subnet will it have?

27.IP 131.107.21.12 wants to have 126 only 126 hosts per subnet
including the given IP.what mask will you apply?

-->255.255.255.0,255.255.0,255.255.248.0,255.255.255.248

28.A long CISCO program and Output was given.We have to find the
command to get the Output.

29.What is required to connect to avaya network or 'something like

that was there' from home?

-->C-LAN board,Processor,Both,Internet.

30.What will be the capacity of the channel if you have opted for only 1
ISDN B-channel?
31.Which of the questions is NOT answered by Service Portfolio
Management?

32.What will be the impact if you decide to change the protocol from
G729(8 kbps) to G711(64kbps)?

33.What willbe the impact if you add more ports to an existing

configuration in VLAN?

34.If a customer dials a number and it is directly picked by the service

center without even ringing what type of link will it be?

-->PBX to PBX,trunk to trunk,exchange to exchange,PSTN to PSTN and

other options.

35.MAC stands for.

Dumps:

1. Half questions on IP addressing and also on Telecom

2. ITIL questions 4

1. IP addr 160.16.0.0/21,give the no. of subnet and hosts

(choose the correct option)

2. Ip addr 199.106.14.0/24,choose the correct option:

a. 1 network,254 hosts
b. 4 network,128 hosts

c. 2 network,24 hosts

b. 6 network,64 hosts

3. Give the port no. and protocol used by RADIUS?

a. 1645 over TCP

b. 1645 over UDP

c. 49 over TCP

d. 49 over UDP

4.HDBS is used in which standard?

5. Range of IP's for multicast addressing...choose the correct option

6. IP addr, 196.202.56.0, allowing maximum no. of hosts, choose the

correct

subnet from the options:

a. 255.255.224.0

b. 255.255.255.128

c. 255.255.255.192

d. 255.255.255.224
7. For IP addr, 10.0.0.0/24; give the maximum subnets and valid no. of
hosts?

8. Give the subnet mask for /19

a. 255.255.224.0

b. 255.224.0.0

-2 more similar options

9. When impedance is mismatched in a 2-wire to 4-wire ckt,what is it

known?

a. Glare

b. Jitter

c. Echo

d. Clipping

10. Signalling is broadly classified into 2 types.Options are:

a. SLS

b. Inter Exchange Signalling

c. ISDN

d. H.323

11. Mathematical tool for analysis of discrete time signals and

systems?
a. Laplace Transform

b. Z Transform

c. Fourier Transform

d. None of the above

12. For IP addr, 192.20.240.59/28, give the broadcast address? ( 2

questions on this type)

13.What is the maximum fragmented size of IP packets?

14. A question on facts about ISDN.

15. SRTP is used for?

16. 2 service portfolio components? (ITIL)

17. One question from ITIL in which 'service optimization' is the option
which is not under the lifecycle

18. Give the unit which is equal to one cycle per sec:

a. Volts

b. Ampere

c. Hertz
d. Joule

19.Baud rate is:

a. equal to bit transfer rate

b. equal to twice the bandwidth of the channel

c. not equal to the signalling rate

d. equal to half of the bandwidth of the channel

20. PPP traffic information?

a. debug PPP packets

b. debug PPP protocol

c. debug PPP authentication

d. debug PPP

21. Choose the correct PPP subprotocol for point to point connection

a. NCP

b. ISDN

c. SLIP

d. LCP

22. test 1 and test 2 routers are connected via a private line using
PPP. List the steps in PPP session
establishment.

- link establishment phase, optional authentication phase, network

layer protocol phase

(these three are mixed in diff orders as the options)

23. The no. of network bits in the IP addr 56.128.0.0/12 is?

a. 12

b. 16

c. 20

d. 24

24. Give the broadcast address of 12.120.24.159/18

a. 12.120.63.0

b. 12.120.63.255

c. 12.120.31.255

d. 12.63.255.255

25. In today's networks, which encapsulation methods are most widely

used (ISDN)?

a. IP & IPX

b. IP & PPP

c. PPP & SDLC

d. PPP & HDLC

26. Device name which enables a router serial interface to connect to
IDSN BRI?

- options maybe NT1, NT2, TE and TA

27. Bridges are in which layer of the OSI model?

27. Firewalls are in which layer of the OSI model?

28. What are the three valid reasons to assign ports when VLANS are
on a switch?

29. Show spantree e0/1 command, which part of output indicates that
VLAN1 is functioning properly?

a. Root port is Fast Ethernet 0/26

b. Port Ethernet 0/1 of VLAN is forwarding

- 2 more options

30. The interface commands on a Catalyst 2900 switch to bring all

VLAN traffic to another directly

connection switch is?

31. The function of hybrid, and type of analog audio transmission

impairment is?
a. converts 2wire to 4 wire and produces echo

b. converts 2wire to 4 wire and produces noise

- 2 more options

32. The ITU G series standard where voicestream is at 8 Kbs?

a. G.711

b. G.726

c. G.728

d. G.729

33. Meaning of insourcing and outsourcing delivery model.

--These are some of the questions I've noted down.

===========================================================
======================

Which two are facts about integrated services digital network (ISDN)?
a) ISDN provides only data only capability.

b) ISDN provides an integrated voice/data capability.

c) C) The ISDN standards define the hardware and call setup schemes
for end-to-end analog connectivity.
d) D) Users receive more bandwidth on WANs with a leased line of
56kbps than with multiple b channels.

Question29 of 50

Which two are facts about integrated services digital network (ISDN)?
a) ISDN provides only data only capability.

b) ISDN provides an integrated voice/data capability.

c) C)The ISDN standards define the hardware and call setup schemes
for end-to-end analog connectivity.

d) D)Users receive more bandwidth on WANs with a leased line of

56kbps than with multiple b channels

Question30 of 50

Which channels are used by ISDN BRI? a) 2d+b

b) 23d+b

c) C)2b+d

d) D)23b+d

Question31 of 50

Each port of a Switch is specified with how many layers of OSI model?
a) physical and datalink layer

b) Physical layer

c) C) Physical,datalink and network layer

d) D) All 7 layers

Question32 of 50

The data across OSI application layer is called as? a) Data

b) Segment
c) C) Packet

d) D) frame

Question33 of 50

Hubs are placed in which layer of OSI model? a) physical layer

b) datalink layer

c) C)network layer

d) D)All 7 layers

Question34 of 50

Match the corresponding layers of ISO and DoD models?

DoD Model <---------> ISO OSI Model

A) Process/Application 1. Application

B. Host-to-Host 2. Presentation

C. Internet 3. Session

D. Network Access 4. Transport

5. Network

6. Data Link

7. Physical

Choose best choice:

a) A->1+2+3; B->4; C->5+6; D->7

b) A->1+2; B->3+4; C->5; D->6+

c) C) A->1+2+3; B->4+5; C->6; D->7

d) D)A->1+2+3; B->4; C->5; D->6+7

Question35 of 50

Each time a VTP server modifies its VLAN configuration,the VTP server
increments the current configuartion revision number by _________> a) 1

b) 0

c) C)2

d) D)10

Question36 of 50

When a new trunk is configured on a 2950 switch, which VLANs by

default are allowed over the trunk link? a) no VLANs

b) all VLANs

c) C) only VLANs 1 - 64

d) D) only the VLANs that are specified when creating the trunk

Question37 of 50

Which statements describe two of the benefits of VLAN Trunking

Protocol?

A. VTP allows routing between VLANs.

B. VTP allows a single switch port to carry information to more than
one VLAN.

C. VTP allows physically redundant links while preventing switching

loops.

D. VTP simplifies switch administration by allowing switches to

automatically share VLAN configuration information.

E. VTP helps to limit configuration errors by keeping VLAN naming

consistent across the VTP domain.

F. VTP enhances security by preventing unauthorized hosts from

connecting to the VTP domain.

a) A,B

b) B,C

c) C) C,D

d) D) D) D,E

Question38 of 50

Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) uses which type of digital signaling

level? a) T1

b) T3

c) DS1

d) DS0

Question39 of 50
Which of the following Quality of Service (QoS) techniques uses the
precedence bits in the IP header? a) RSVP

b) 8O2.l1

c) IntServ

d) DiffServ

Question40 of 50

Which International Telecommunication Union (ITU) G Series standard

specifies a voice stream operating at 8 Kbps?

a) G.711

b) G.726

c) G.728

d) G.729

Question41 of 50

Which three of the following are appropriate solutions to address

latency issues in a VoIP network? (Choose 3.)

A) Use dejitter buffers.

B) Increase bandwidth

C) Use SRTP instead of RTP.

D) Fragment data packets.

E) Prioritize voice packets.

a) B,D,E

b) A,B,C

c) C,D,E

d) A,D,E

Question42 of 50

At what point does the MGCP call agent release the setup of the call
path to the

residential gateways?

a) after the call agent has forwarded session description protocol

information to the destination from the source and has sent a modify
connection to the destination and a create-connection request to the
source

b) after the call agent has been notified of an event and has instructed
the source residential gateway to create a connection

c) does not release call path setup

d) after the call agent has sent a connection request to both the
source and destination and has relayed a modify-connection request to
the source so that the source and destination can set up the call path
Question43 of 50

What transport layer protocol does RTP utilize?

a) TCP

b) UDP

c) IP

d) ICMP

Question44 of 50

A customer wants to use an Avaya S87xx Media Server with Avaya

G700 Gateways at remote locations. Each G700 Gateway will include
an S8300 Local Survivable Processor and approximately 75 IP sets
incorporating G.711. What Avaya feature allows IP sets to register with
the S8300 if connectivity to the S87xx is lost? a) Local CLAN board

b) Alternate Gatekeeper

c) S8300 Auto-Registration

d) D) Gateway Alternate Redirection

Question45 of 50

What is the maximum number of TN2602 IP Media Resource circuit

packs allowed in a port network? a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) D) 4
Question46 of 50

Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and

Outsourcing delivery model options? a) Insourcing relies on internal
resources; outsourcing relies on external organization(s) resources

b) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing

relies on internal resources

c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships

d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing

relies on application service provisioning

Question47 of 50

Facilities Management refers to? a) The Management of IT services

that are viewed as ?utilities?,such as printers or network access

b) The Management of an outsourcing contract

c) The Management of the physical IT environment,such as a Data

Center

d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT

operations staff to maintain the infrastructure

Question48 of 50

ITIL V3 talks about a) Aligning IT with business

b) Integrating IT with business

c) Separating IT with business

d) Coordinating with business

Question49 of 50

The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is most

accurately described as? a) To understand the performance
characteristics of assets and Configuration Items (CIs) in order to
maximize their contribution to service levels

b) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective

c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they
were designed to achieve

d) To define and control the components of services and

infrastructure and maintain accurate configuration records

Question50 of 50

Which is the correct sequence of events in the selection of a Service

Management tool? a) Select Product,Requirements,Selection
Criteria,Evaluate Product

b) Selection Criteria,Requirements,Evaluate Product,Select Product

c) Requirements,Selection Criteria,Select Product,Evaluate Product

d) Requirements,Selection Criteria,Evaluate Product,Select Product

Question

1  of 50
The Wipro network was assigned the Class C network 199.166.131.0
from the ISP. If the administrator at Wipro were to subnet this class C
network using the 255.255.255.240 subnet mask, how may hosts will
they be able to support on each subnet?

  a) 30

  b) 16

  c) 14

  d) 32

Question

2  of 50

What is the cabling structure for crossover cable?

( )
a) 1-1, 2-2, 3-3, 6-6
 

(X)
b) 1-3, 2-6, 3-1, 6-2
 

( )
c) 1-6, 2-3, 3-2, 6-1
 

( )
d) 6-1, 3-3, 2-2, 1-6
 

Question

3  of 50
Find out the number of  subnets and hosts per subnet for the following
IP address 160.16.0.0/21?

( )
a) 128 subnets, 510 hosts
 

( )
b) 64 subnets, 510 hosts
 

(X)
c) 32 subnets, 2046 hosts
 

( )
d) 256 subnets, 254 hosts
 

Question

4  of 50

The Wipro network was assigned the Class C network 199.166.131.0

from the ISP.
If the administrator at Wipro were to subnet this class C network using
the 255.255.255.240 subnet mask, how may hosts will they be able to
support on each subnet?

( )
a) 30
 

( )
b) 16
 
(X)
c) C)14
 

( )
d) D)32
 

Question

5  of 50

Find out the number of valid subnets and hosts per subnet for the
following IP address 172.16.0.0/22?

( )
a) 128 subnets, 510 valid hosts
 

(X)
b) 62 subnets, 1022 valid hosts
 

( )
c) C)512 subnets, 126 valid hosts
 

( )
d) D)256 subnets, 254 valid hosts
 

Question

6  of 50

Which command would configure Interface E0 with an IP address of

12.23.4.5 using a Subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 ?

 
( )
a) that is an invalid mask for a class 'A' address
 

( )
b) ip address 12.23.4.5 /24
 

(X)
c) C)ip address 12.23.4.5 255.255.255.0
 

( )
d) D)ip address 12.23.4.5 mask 255.255.255.0
 

Question

7  of 50

Given an IP address of 131.107.2.160 and a subnet mask of

255.255.255.192, to which subnet does the host belong?

(X)
a) 131.107.2.32
 

( )
b) 131.107.2.64
 

( )
c) C) 131.107.2.96
 

( )
d) D) 131.107.2.128
 

Question
8  of 50

What is the subnet mask value for /19

(X)
a) 255.255.224.0
 

( )
b) 255.224.0.0
 

( )
c) C)255.255.255.224
 

( )
d) D)255.0.224.0
 

Question

9  of 50

Find out the number of valid subnets and hosts per subnet for the
following IP address 29.0.0.0/15

(X)
a) 128 subnets, (2*256*256) - 2 valid hosts
 

( )
b) 128 subnets, 126 valid hosts
 

( )
c) C)256 subnets, (2*256*256) - 2valid hosts
 
( )
d) D)512 subnets, 65534 valid hosts
 

Question

10  of 50

Routers R1, R2, and R3 are configured in a hub and spoke frame relay
environment, with router R1 as the hub. You have configured Router
R1, Router R2, and Router R3 to run IGRP over the frame relay
connections. No sub-interfaces are used. You have configured a single
IP subnet on all the Frame Relay interfaces. Router R1 can reach both
router R2 and R3, but R2 and R3 can not reach each other. What is the
probable cause of this problem?

( )
a) Router R1 is missing frame maps.
 

( )
b) Router R2 and Router R3 are not performing frame map updates.
 

( )
c) C)LMI mismatches between routers R2 and R3
 

( )
d) D)Split-horizon is enabled on Router R1.
 

Question

11  of 50

FAW stands for

 

(X)
a) Frame Alignment Word
 

( )
b) Frame Adjacent Word
 

( )
c) Frequency Amplitude
 

( )
d) Frame Access Word
 

Question

12  of 50

For best results,the quantization of the amplitude range should be

( )
a) Uniform
 

(X)
b) Non-uniform
 

( )
c) Constant
 

( )
d) None of the above
 
Question

13  of 50

A T-1 line actually consists of ____ individual channels,each of which

supports ___ Kbits/second

( )
a) 30 & 64
 

( )
b) 24 & 24
 

(X)
c) 24 & 64
 

( )
d) 32 & 64
 

Question

14  of 50

CCS stands for

( )
a) Call Coverage System
 

( )
b) Channel Control Signaling
 

( ) c) Common Channel Signaling

 

( )
d) Common Control Standard
 

Question

15  of 50

Global Switched Telephony Network is another name for what?

(X)
a) Public Switched Telephony Network
 

( )
b) Private Switched Telephony Network
 

( )
c) Post,Telephone and Telegraph
 

( )
d) Interactive voice response
 

Question

16  of 50

What type of signaling does SS7/C7 use?

( )
a) Ground-start
 
( )
b) Loop-start
 

( )
c) In-band
 

( )
d) Out-of-band
 

Question

17  of 50

The types of media that can transmit information in the

telecommunications world are the following ______________.

( )
a) Copper wire,coaxial cable,fiber,and air
 

( )
b) Hybrid fiber and copper wire only
 

( )
c) Wireless and copper wire only
 

(X)
d) Copper wire,coaxial cable,fiber only
 

Question

18  of 50
How many pairs of wires are there in CAT 3 cable

( )
a) 3
 

( )
b) 2
 

(X)
c) 4
 

( )
d) 1
 

Question

19  of 50

_______is a signal distribution frame for connecting equipment (inside

plant) to cables and subscriber carrier equipment (outside plant).

( )
a) The Main distribution frame
 

( )
b) The Super Frame connector
 

(X)
c) The SUB distribution frame
 

( ) d) The ISDN primary rate interface

 

Question

20  of 50

Shielded Twisted Pair(STP) provides better performance than

Unshielded Twisted Pair(UTP) in terms of

( )
a) Bandwidth
 

( )
b) Attenuation
 

( )
c) Cross-talk
 

(X)
d) All of the above
 

Question

21  of 50

Based on the command output above, what type of 'handshake' was

used for PPP authentication?

( )
a) one-way
 

( ) b) two-way
 

(X)
c) three-way
 

( )
d) four-way
 

Question

22  of 50

Under one of the serial interfaces of your router you see the following
configured: Interface serial 0/0 Encapsulation PPP IP address 10.1.1.1
255.255.255.252 Invert txclock What is a reason for the "invert
txclock" command being configured?

( )
a) It synchronizes TXD and RXD clocks.
 

( ) b) It corrects systems that use long cables that experience high

  error rates when operating at the higher transmission speeds.

( ) c) It is used for adjusting the transmit clock properties of the PPP

  negotiation process

( ) d) It inverts the phase of the local clock used for timing incoming

  data the serial line.

Question
23  of 50

A WIPRO branch office uses Telnet and FTP to access an application

at the main office over a point to point T1 HDLC link. You wish to
increase the performance over this link through the use of a
compression algorithm. What compression type will provide the best
performance improvement?

( )
a) Compressed Real-time Transport Protocol
 

( )
b) TCP header compression
 

( )
c) Stacker compression
 

( )
d) Predictor compression
 

Question

24  of 50

Find out the CIDR value for following networks, 172.16.0.0/16,

172.17.0.0/16, 172.18.0.0/16 and 172.19.0.0/16,

( )
a) 172.16.0.0/16
 

( ) b) 172.16.0.0/15
 

(X)
c) 172.16.0.0/14
 

( )
d) 172.16.0.0/13
 

Question

25  of 50

Which one can be used as data-link layer protocol for Star LAN
topology with Twisted pair cables?

(X)
a) 802.11 standard protocols
 

( )
b) Token ring
 

( )
c) FDDI
 

( )
d) ethernet_II
 

Question

26  of 50

Telnet uses what destination port number?

( )
a) 21
 

( )
b) 20
 

(X)
c) 23
 

( )
d) telnet port is random
 

Question

27  of 50

A network is configured with 172.220.56.75/23,which would the

broadcast address for
that network,

( )
a) 172.220.57.255
 

( )
b) 172.220.56.255
 

( )
c) 172.220.59.255
 

( )
d) 172.220.58.255
 
Question

28  of 50

In today networks which encapsulation methods are most commonly

used (ISDN)?

( )
a) IP and IPX
 

( )
b) IP and PPP
 

( )
c) C)PPP and SDLC
 

(X)
d) D)PPP and HDLC
 

Question

29  of 50

ISDN is sometimes used in locations that do not offer support for DSL
or Cable Modems connections. Your choices may be Analog modems
or an ISDN connection in those remote locations. ISDN has benefits
over regular dial up modem connections. Which of the following are
examples of these benefits?

( )
a) PVCs are faster and more reliable.
 
( )
b) No specialized equipment is required.
 

( )
c) C)Data transfer is faster than typical modems.
 

( )
d) D)It carries only data traffic
 

Question

30  of 50

Which two are facts about integrated services digital network (ISDN)?

( )
a) ISDN provides only data only capability.
 

( )
b) ISDN provides an integrated voice/data capability.
 

( ) c) C)The ISDN standards define the hardware and call setup

  schemes for end-to-end analog connectivity.

( ) d) D)Users receive more bandwidth on WANs with a leased line of

  56kbps than with multiple b channels

Question

31  of 50
Which layer of the OSI model handles data translation, code
formatting, and encryption ?

( )
a) Physical
 

(X)
b) Data link
 

( )
c) C) Network
 

( )
d) D) Presentation
 

Question

32  of 50

The Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency (DAPRA) developed

the TCP/IP suite of protocols. Which layer in that TCP/IP model
corresponds to the OSI model?s network layer?

( )
a) Application
 

( )
b) Transport
 

(X) c) C) Internet
 

( )
d) D) Network
 

Question

33  of 50

Each port of a HUB is specified with how many layers of OSI model?

( )
a) Physical and datalink layer
 

(X)
b) Physical layer
 

( )
c) C) Physical,datalink and network layer
 

( )
d) D) All 7 layers
 

Question

34  of 50

Error-Detection across OSI model is run at which layer of OSI model?

(X)
a) transport layer
 

( ) b) network layer

 

( )
c) C) data-link layer
 

( )
d) D) Physical layer
 

Question

35  of 50

What is the extended range of VLAN-ID?

(X)
a) 1-1005
 

( )
b) 1006-4094
 

( )
c) C)1_4094
 

( )
d) D)0-4094
 

Question

36  of 50

In which layer of Cisco model,VLAN membership,traffic and

protocolfiltering can be implemented in a Switch environment?
 

( )
a) access layer
 

( )
b) distribution layer
 

( )
c) C)core layer
 

( )
d) D)application layer
 

Question

37  of 50

which priority value is selected automatically by PVST to run VLAN10?

( )
a) 10
 

( )
b) 32768
 

( )
c) C)32778
 

( )
d) D)65525
 
Question

38  of 50

Which of the following Quality of Service (QoS) technologies involves

end-to-end requests for network resources?

( )
a) RSVP
 

( )
b) IntServ
 

( )
c) DiffServ
 

( )
d) 802.11Q
 

Question

39  of 50

Which International Telecommunication Union (ITU) G Series standard

defines PCM voice coding at 64 Kbps?

( )
a) G.711
 

( )
b) G.726
 
( )
c) G.728
 

( )
d) G.729
 

Question

40  of 50

What is the function of a gatekeeper in a converged network?

( )
a) Provides network connectivity for legacy systems.
 

( ) b) Provides admission control and address translation between

  endpoints.

( ) c) Manages calls between three or more endpoints to facilitate

  multipoint conferencing.

( ) d) Performs call setup and address translation between packet-

  switched and circuit-switched networks.

Question

41  of 50

When you first install Cisco CallManager software, which CD-ROM

should you use to boot the server to determine the correct CD-ROM to
insert next?
( )
a) Cisco CallManager 4.0 Software Disk
 

( ) b) Cisco IP Telephony Server Operating System Hardware Detection

  Disk

( )
c) Cisco CallManager Installation, Upgrade, and Recovery Disk
 

( )
d) Cisco IP Telephony Server Backup and Restore Disk
 

Question

42  of 50

Which two items must be installed for TAPS to function properly?

(Choose two.)
A) CRS
B) BAT
C) plug-ins
D) Extension Mobility

( )
a) A,C
 

( )
b) A,B
 

( )
c) A,D
 

( ) d) B,D
 

Question

43  of 50

Which three capabilities can't be configured if the default dial peer is

matched?
(Choose three)
A) Set preference to 1
B) Invoke a Tcl application
C) Enable dtmf-relay
D) Set codec to G.711
E) Disable DID
F) Disable VAD

( )
a) B,C,E
 

( )
b) B,C,F
 

( )
c) A,B,C
 

( )
d) A,C,F
 

Question

44  of 50

An Avaya customer with a large contact center is IP enabling their

S87xx and will allow 25 users to work from home via IP Agent in the
Telecommuter mode. What is the minimum hardware required in the
S87xx to provide this application?

( )
a) one CLAN board only
 

( )
b) one Media Processor board only
 

( )
c) one CLAN and one Media Processor board
 

( )
d) D) no hardware is required, only software.
 

Question

45  of 50

A customer has a Communication Manager system with centralized

call processing (S8730 with G650's at the main site). At each of the
remote sites, connected via an MPLS network, they have G450's with
S8300 LSP. Which feature would they need to implement in order to
have four digit dialing between sites, through the SPTN, in case of a
WAN failure?

( )
a) IGAR
 

( ) b) DCAC
 

( )
c) DPT
 

( )
d) D) SBS
 

Question

46  of 50

Which of the following areas would technology help to support during

the Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?
1. Data mining and workflow tools
2. Measurement and reporting systems
3. Release and Deployment technology
4. Process Design

( )
a) 1,2 and 3 only
 

( )
b) 1,3 and 4 only
 

( )
c) 2,3 and 4 only
 

( )
d) All of the above
 

Question
47  of 50

Which of the following is the CORRECT order of the activities in the 7-

Step Improvement Process (first activity first)?

( ) a) 1-Define what you should measure. 2-Define what you can
measure. 3-Gather dat 4-Process dat 5-Analyse dat 6-Present
  information. 7-Implement corrective action.

( ) b) 1- Define what you can measure. 2-Define what you should
measure. 3-Gather dat 4-Analyse dat 5-Process dat 6-Present
  information. 7-Implement corrective action.

( ) c) 1-Define what you should measure.2-Define what you can

measure. 3-Gather dat 4-Analyse dat 5-Process dat 6-Present
  information. 7-Implement corrective action.

( ) d) 1-Define what you can measure. 2-Define what you should
measure. 3-gather dat4-Process data-5-Analyse dat 6-Present
  information.7-Implement corrective action.

Question

48  of 50

ITIL V3 has introduced which of the following approach?

( )
a) Service centric approach
 

( )
b) Service lifecycle approach
 

( ) c) Service quality approach

 

( )
d) Strategic service approach
 

Question

49  of 50

A key role for Service Operation is to achieve a balance between

conflicting sets of priorities. A fundamental conflict exists between IT
and a set of technology components on one side and:

( ) a) The view in which the organization focuses only on business

  requirements and the services delivered

( ) b) The ability to respond to change without impacting on other

  services

( )
c) A strong focus on delivering quality
 

( )
d) Proactive behavior on the other side.
 

Question

50  of 50

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

1. Only one person can be responsible for an activity.
2. Only one person can be accountable for an activity
 

( )
a) Neither 1 nor 2
 

( )
b) All the above
 

( )
c) Just 1
 

( )
d) Just 2
 

 ==========================================================
==========================

1. . Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the

following?

a. Incident Management

b. Problem Management

c. Access Management

d. ?

e. ?

--- Event management and Request Fulfillment

2. CSI ---- Continual Service Improvement

3. MGCP --- Media Gateway Control Protocol

4. IVR applications --- telephone banking, televoting, and credit card
services.

5. Companding --- compressing and expanding

6. Modem --- modulates and demodulates

7. ITU standard ---- International telecommunication Union –Telecom

8. UDT/TCP both are used in which function ---- FTP

9. TCP and UDP ---- The transport layer

10. Which OSI layer is used in Encryption --- Presentation

11. Capacity of single ISDN B channel ---- consists of two 64 kb/s B

channels and one 16 kb/s D channel for a total of 144 kb/s

12. Match Pattern: 9.8XXX

Discard digits instruction (DDI): PreDot

If the user dials 98111, the PreDot DDI is applied to the 9.8XXX route
pattern, which strips the “9” from the dialed digits and sends only the
8111 to the PBX.

13. Spanning Tree Protocol will guarantee a loop free Layer 2 topology.

14. Error-Detection across OSI model is run at which layer of OSI

model?

--- Data link layer

15. Firewalls are placed in which layer of OSI model?

---- All 7 layers

16. Switches / bridges are placed in which layer of OSI model?

---- Data link layer

17. Hubs are placed in which layer of OSI model?

---- Physical layer

18. 1-126 = A class

128-191 = B class
192-223 = C class

224-239 = D class
240-255 = E class
19. How do you log in route in priviledge mode

---- You can enter privileged mode by first entering user mode and
then typing the command enable

20. Which of the following identifies two Service Portfolio components

within the Service Lifecycle?

--- Requirements Portfolio and Service Catalogue

21. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service

Portfolio Management?

--- What opportunities are there in the market?

22. Which of the following best means Combination of Internal &

External Sourcing?

--- Co-Sourcing

23. What is the bandwidth capacity of one ISDN B channel

--- 64 kbps

24. while troubleshooting problem in network you get message request

timed out, which layer?
--- Network

25. “Warranty of a service” means which of the following?

--- Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity,

continuity and security

26. What is the maximum number of TN2602 IP Media Resource circuit

packs allowed in a port network?
--- 2.

27. What protocol is used to communicate between a DSP farm

configured on an IOS router and a Cisco Unified Communications
Manager server?

--- SCCP

28. Buffer is a region of memory used to temporarily hold data while it

is being moved from one place to another

29. which is the sampling freq?

A. 8000 Khz`

B. 64 KHZ

C. 4 Khz

D. 8 KHZ

30. Two form of CTI

--- first party call control and third party call control.

31. Call center utilizes ____ to distribute I/C calls to specific resource

--- ACD - Automatic call distributor

32. POE full form

--- Power over Ethernet (PoE)

33. which is not in group?

A. PSK
B. FSK

C. ASK

D. TDM

34. how fast gigabit ethernet

1 GB

35. which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?

--- LCP

36. what command displays for PPP traffic on a cisco router

--- debug ppp

37. Hybrid system can connect

A hybrid PBX system offers the ability to mix the technologies of the
future, including voice over IP (VoIP) with the traditional technologies
of digital and analogue communications -  all on the same platform.

38. Acknowldgement, Sequencing, and Flow control are

characteristics of which OSI layer?
---- Layer 4

39. 26. When planning and implementing a Continual Service

Improvement (CSI) initiative, which of the following benefits is LEAST
useful in supporting a business case?

a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate

capacity and performance modeling processes

b) Reduce support manpower demand by 30% due to automated

incident and problem management processes

c) Improve employee morale and therefore create better relationships

between IT and business units
d) Reduce Problem resolution by 50% and minimize critical system
outages

17. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented

within which of the following?

a) The Glossary of Terms

b) A Service Level Agreement

c) An Incident Management record

d) A Configuration Item (CI)

1.find subnet address for host address 15.25.25.25/18?

2.show ip route"IGRP is indicated by

3.bridges are placed in which layer of OSI

4.Which of the following is the correct description of the 4 P’s of

service design.

ans:The four major areas that need to be considered in the design of

effective Service

Management
5. CCS stands for...?

6.telnet port no

7.pcm uses which type of digital signaling level

8.speed of fast ethernet.

9.whcih isdn device converts the 4-wire BRI signals from s/t interface

into two -wire signals of a U interface

10.how many networks and hosts are there when 199.106.14.14.0 is

subnetted with

a/24 mask.

11.network bits in 156.89.10.0/25

12.Question was there on PPPoA

13.Maximum Fragmentation size of IP packets.

14.Facilities Management refers to

15.ITIL V3 talks about a) Aligning IT with business

-->True or False.

16.A-law and mu-law are examples of______

17.How many pairs of wires are there in CAT 3 cable

18.An Avaya customer with a large contact center is IP enabling their

S87xx and will allow

25 users to work from home via IP Agent in the Telecommuter mode.

What is the minimum

hardware required in the S87xx to provide this application?

19.How many pairs of wires are there in CAT 5 cable

20.A customer recently added Voice over IP (VoIP) on a 512-Kbps
leased circuit between

offices. It now routinely realizes 80 percent bandwidth utilization.

Rather than increasing

the bandwidth, which of the following actions best addresses this

problem?

A Decrease the latency parameter in the VoIP gateway.

B Change the codec used by the VoIP gateway from G.711 to G. 729a.

C Increase the Keep Alive value in the VoIP gateway to 60 seconds to

reduce overhead

congestion.

D Reduce the frame multiplier so the VoIP gateway uses one l0ms
frame for the payload.
21.Glare occurs in what...?

22.You are developing IP Telephony bandwidth requirements for WAN

traffic between two

S87xx sites. The client estimates that simultaneous non-IP Telephony

traffic will occupy

1.5 Mbps. In

addition, they estimate that using G.729, 55 simultaneous IP calls

need to be provided

access to the WAN

link.

What estimated bandwidth will the IP Telephony traffic add to the WAN
traffic?

A. 1.5 Mbps

B. 275 Kbps

C. 1650 Kbps

D. 4675 Kbps

Answer: C

23.which of these don't come in ITIL publication IIIV3

optimization

-service transition

-service design

-service strategy.

24.MAC stands for.

25.Show spantree e0/1 command, which part of output indicates that

VLAN1 is functioning

properly?

26.Each port of a Router is specified with how many layers of OSI

model?

27.What protocol is used to communicate between a DSP farm

configured on an IOS router and

a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server?

28.LAPD stands for ______

1. . Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following?
a. Incident Management

b. Problem Management

c. Access Management

d. ?

e. ?

--- Event management and Request Fulfillment

2. CSI ---- Continual Service Improvement

3. MGCP --- Media Gateway Control Protocol

4. IVR applications --- telephone banking, televoting, and credit card services.

5. Companding --- compressing and expanding

6. Modem --- modulates and demodulates

7. ITU standard ---- International telecommunication Union –Telecom

8. UDT/TCP both are used in which function ---- FTP

9. TCP and UDP ---- The transport layer

10. Which OSI layer is used in Encryption --- Presentation

11. Capacity of single ISDN B channel ---- consists of two 64 kb/s B channels and one 16
kb/s D channel for a total of 144 kb/s

12. Match Pattern: 9.8XXX

Discard digits instruction (DDI): PreDot

If the user dials 98111, the PreDot DDI is applied to the 9.8XXX route pattern, which strips the
“9” from the dialed digits and sends only the 8111 to the PBX.
13. Spanning Tree Protocol will guarantee a loop free Layer 2 topology.

14. Error-Detection across OSI model is run at which layer of OSI model?

--- Data link layer

15. Error-Correction across OSI model is run at which layer of OSI model?

---- Transport layer

16. Firewalls are placed in which layer of OSI model?

---- All 7 layers

17. Switches / bridges are placed in which layer of OSI model?

---- Data link layer

18. Hubs are placed in which layer of OSI model?

---- Physical layer

19. 1-126 = A class

128-191 = B class
192-223 = C class

224-239 = D class
240-255 = E class
20. How do you log in route in priviledge mode

---- You can enter privileged mode by first entering user mode and then typing the command
enable

21. Which of the following identifies two Service Portfolio components within the Service
Lifecycle?

--- Requirements Portfolio and Service Catalogue

22. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service Portfolio Management?

--- What opportunities are there in the market?

23. Which of the following best means Combination of Internal & External Sourcing?

--- Co-Sourcing

24. What is the bandwidth capacity of one ISDN B channel

--- 64 kbps

25. while troubleshooting problem in network you get message request timed out, which
layer?
--- Network

26. “Warranty of a service” means which of the following?

--- Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security

27. What is the maximum number of TN2602 IP Media Resource circuit packs allowed in a
port network?

--- 2.

28. What protocol is used to communicate between a DSP farm configured on an IOS
router and a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server?

--- SCCP
29. Buffer is a region of memory used to temporarily hold data while it is being moved from one
place to another

30. which is the sampling freq?

- - -8 KHZ

31. Two form of CTI

--- first party call control and third party call control.

32. Call center utilizes ____ to distribute I/C calls to specific resource

--- ACD - Automatic call distributor

33. POE full form

--- Power over Ethernet (PoE)

34. which is not in group?

A. PSK

B. FSK

C. ASK

D. TDM

35. how fast gigabit ethernet

- - - 1 GB

36. which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?

--- LCP

37. what command displays for PPP traffic on a cisco router

--- debug ppp

38. Hybrid system can connect

---A hybrid PBX system offers the ability to mix the technologies of the future, including voice
over IP (VoIP) with the traditional technologies of digital and analogue communications -  all on
the same platform.

39. Acknowldgement, Sequencing, and Flow control are characteristics of which OSI
layer?
---- Layer 4

40. When planning and implementing a Continual Service Improvement (CSI) initiative,
which of the following benefits is LEAST useful in supporting a business case?

a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate capacity and performance
modeling processes

b) Reduce support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident and problem
management processes

c) Improve employee morale and therefore create better relationships between IT and
business units

d) Reduce Problem resolution by 50% and minimize critical system outages

41. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented within which of the
following?

a) The Glossary of Terms

b) A Service Level Agreement

c) An Incident Management record

d) A Configuration Item (CI)

42. Which three factors must be considered when calculating the total bandwidth of a
VoIP call?

A. Codec size

B. Data-link overhead

C. Sample size
43. Which two recommendations of a network assessment allow Avaya IP phones to boot
up properly with dynamic addressing?

A. DHCP Site Specific Option 176 being set up correctly

B. using Fast Spanning Tree Protocol (FSTP) at the port level

44. What unlocks the 7960 configuration menu?

---**#

45. Which three are supervisory signals?

A. on hook
B. off hook
C. ring
46. ____________employs a signaling channel which is dedicated to a specific bearer
channel
---Channel-associated signaling (CAS)
47. A customer is experiencing sporadic problems with clicking during conversations,
poor quality on fax transmissions, and modems failing to connect. Which of the following
is the most likely cause?

A. The T1 clock reference is incorrect.

48. Command used to copy IOS image from TFTP server

A copy Flash : TFTP

49. In a point to point connection between two Certifyme offices, which PPP subprotocol
negotiates authentication
options?
--- LCP
50. wires RJ12 connector holds
--- 6
51. Octet is a group of
-- 8 bit

52. A customer is experiencing sporadic problems with clicking during conversations, poor
quality on fax transmissions, and modems failing to connect. Which of the following is the most
likely cause?
--- The T1 clock reference is incorrect.

53. offers a variety of standard and optional features that appear transparent when
communications between PBXs are performed

--- QSIG

54. Hybrid system can connect

-- Analogue & proprietary digital

55. call collision on loop start are known as

--- Glare

56. employees a signaling channel which is dedicated to specific bearer channel

-- CAS

57. The old telephone system (PSTN) uses circuit switching to transmit voice data whereas
VoIP uses packet-switching to do so.

58. what is the sampling freq?

--- 8 khz

59. two 64 kbps B-channels and one 16 kbps D-channel is BRI

60. Which 3 are supervisory signals

--- on hook, off hook, ring

61. Following is not the core volumes of ITIL V3 4P’s of service design
--- Operation Management

62. What needs to be considered at an Enterprise Survivability Server (ESS) location when

implementing an agent recording solution?

--- Application Enablement Services (AES)

63. When DN 0111 calls and a calling transformation mask of 772555***

Is applied which CLID is sent

772555111

64. WAN encapsulation method

---HDLC

65. You are about to configure PPP the interface of a Cisco router. Which authentication
methods could you use?

--- CHAP, PAP

66. Which statements are true regarding ISDN channels? [[ABC]]

Each B channel can transmit up to 64 kbps
The ISDN B channel carries voice or data
The ISDN D channel transmits control information.
67. Which encapsulation methods are most commonly used with
dialup Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?
--- PPP and HDLC

68. Which two are facts about integrated services digital network (ISDN)?
ISDN provides an integrated voice/data capability.
The ISDN standards define the hardware and call setup schemes for end-to-end digital
connectivity.

69. how error frame are detected across OSI ?

--- Data link layer

70. IEEE standard number for LAN tagging protocol across trunk ports?
--- 802.1q

71. Hubs are placed in which layer of OSI model?

--- Physical Layer
72. Data across OSI transport layer is called as

DATA= Application+Presentation+Session layers

Segment= Transport layer

Packet= Network Layer

Frame= Data link layer

Byets= Physical layer

73. Two Certifyme routers are connected via a PPP connection. Which of the following are key
characteristics of
this PPP connection? (Choose three)
A. PPP can be used over analog circuits
B. PPP encapsulates several routed protocols
C. PPP maps Layer 2 to Layer 3 address
D. PPP provides error correction
E. PPP supports IP only
F. PPP provides encryption services
Answer: ABD
74. Which statements are true regarding ISDN channels?
a)Each B channel can transmit upto 64 kbps
b)ISDN B channel carries voice or data
c)ISDN D channel transmits control information
d)the D channel transmission rates varies depending on the service used
e)HDLC or PPP can be used to encapsulate D channel information
a)A,D,E
b)A,B,C
c)B,C,D
d)C,D,E
Answer: A, B, C
75. what command provised the details on the layer 2 transaction occuring between
ISDN switch and the router?
debug isdn q921
76. which channels are used by ISDN BRI?
two 64 kbps B-channels and one 16 kbps D-channel
77. max length of 10BaseT topology?
100 meters
78. what is the function of a gateway in a converged network?
Performs call setup and address translation between circuit-switched and packet-switched
networks
79. which codec will support voice activity detection and comfort noise generation?
G.729B
80. the digitaization standard in the PSTN uses a sampling rate of?
8 khz
81. __________ is a feature of some telephone systems that allow a person to put a call on hold
at one telephone set and pick up the call from any other telephone set?
call park
82. call waiting is a __________ type of signal?
Addressing
83. how does an organisation uses resources and capabilities in creating value?
They are used to create value in the form of goods and services
84. _____ is a point-point communication link in which a call is automatically directed to
the pre-selected destination without any additional action by the user when the end
instrument goes off-hook?
Hotline
85. which feature reads an entire frame before forwarding?
store & forward

86. Which statement is true about MGCP?

A. Call completion is always shared, with some intelligence on the endpoint, some on the call
agent.

B. Endpoints always take all actions to complete calls.

C. Endpoints may act alone or cooperate with call agent to complete calls.

D. Call agents order and direct each step of call completion for the endpoints.

Answer: D

87. what happens if no incoming dial peer matches a router or gateway?

The incoming call legmatches the default dial peer.

88. Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?

All customers ,users and IT staff

89. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as defined in Continual

Service Improvement (CSI)?

1. Process Metrics

2. Supplier Metrics

3. Service Metrics

4. Technology Metrics

5. Business Metrics

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 2, 4 and 5

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2 and 4

90. what is the importanat factors when subnetting the address?

a)Determine the no of seperate networks required

b)determine how many devices will require DHCP addressing

c)determine which router will be the IP default gateway for each subnet

d)determine the minimum number of host that will be on each subnet

91. Match

DoD Model <--------------> ISO OSI Model

A.Process /app 1.application

B.Host-to-host 2.presentation

C.Internet 3.session

D.Network Access 4.transport

5.network

6.data link
 7.physical

a)A->1+2+3;B->4;C->5+6;D->7

b)A->1+2;B->3+4;C->5;D->6+

c)A->1+2+3;B->4+5;C->6;D->7

d)A->1+2+3;B->4;C->5;D->6+7

92. 199.166.131.0 CLASS C subnet mask 255.255.255.224,how many hosts are able to support
one each subnet?

30

93. What needs to be considered at an Enterprise Survivability Server (ESS) location when

implementing an agent recording solution?

A.H.323 trunks

B.locally sourced announcements

C.Application Enablement Services (AES)

D.Separation of Bearer and Signaling (SBS)

94. what is the maximum no of TN2602 IP media Resource circuit packs allowed in a port
network?

95. which is NOT described as a function but as a process in the ITIL Service Management
Practices Framework?

a)Technical management

b)Service portfolio management

c)Service desk

d)application management
96. which is not stored in DML?

a)master copies of software

b)backups of application data

c)software licenses

d)master copies of controlled documentation

97. which of the following is NOT answered by Service Portfolio Management

a)how should our resources and capabilities be allocated

b)what opportunities are there in market

c)why should customer buy these services

d)what are the pricing or charge back models

98. Which three factors must be considered when calculating the total bandwidth of a VoIP call?

A. Codec size

B. CRC usage

C. Datalink overhead

D. Sample size

E. capacity of network links

99. what are the 2 reasons to use IP –addr instead of DNS in a cisco unified comm manager
cluster(choose 2)

a)makes IP addr changes easier

b)reduces the no of potential source of failure

c)improves IP addr scalability

d)simplifies management

e)simplifies troubleshooting

100. What is the best description of an MGCP endpoint?

A. IP phones
B. the gatekeepers in a VoIP network
C. the interconnection between packet and traditional telephone networks
D. any analog telephony device (PBX, switch, etc.)

101. SMDR stands for?

a)station message detail record

b)station monitoring and detail record

c)system message detail record

d)station monitoring and detail record

e)system message detail record

102. Two types of addressing signaling methods?

a)busy signal

b)dial pulse

c)DTMF signaling

d)outlook

a)a&b

b)b&c

c)c&d

d)a&d
103. which is supervisory signaling

a)loop start

b)dial tone

c)busy signal

d)fast busy

104. call collisions on loop start are known as collision domain

a)glare

b)clash

c)none of these

105. Buffering is

a) the process of temporarily storing the data to allow for small variation in device
speeds
b) a method to reduce cross talks
c) storage of data within transmitting medium until the receiver is ready to receive.
d) a method to reduce routing overhead.

106. connector type of thin net coaxial cable

a)RJ-45

b)RJ 11

c)BNC

d)RS-232

107. Predictive dialer uses a variety of algorithms

a)to predict the availability of agents

b)to control the rates of calls to agents

c)to predict called party answers

d)all the above

108. VAD stands for

a)Voice activity detection

b)voice area detection

c)voice activity diversion

d)all

109. .which QOS technique uses precedence bits in IP header?

a)RSVP

b)802.1

c)IntServ

d)Diff Serv

110. system capacity planning based on

a)on calculations and measurements of packet length algorithm

b) on calculations and measurements of busy hour call volume estimates

c) on calculations and measurements of phone cost from phone bills

d) on calculations and measurements of total no of calls placed a month

111. Forward delay time for STP port states

a)5 sec

b)10 sec

c)15 sec
d)20 sec

112. Only 3 can be used as WAN encapsulation method as opposed to LAN encapsulation
which 3 are they?

a)FDDI

b)HDLC

c)Frame relay

d)PPP

e)Token ring

f)Ethernet

113. which of these are authentication methods to configure PPP n the interface of a cisco
router?

a)SSL

b)SLIP

c)PAP

d)LAPB

e)CHAP

d)VNP

114. What is the bandwidth capacity of one ISDN B channel

A. 64 kbps

B. 128 kbps

C. 512 kbps

D. 1.54 mkbps

115. standard IP access lists in the range

a)1-99

b)100-199

c)101-199

d)401-500

116. Which encapsulation methods are most commonly used with

dialup Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?

A. IP and IPX

B. IP and PPP

C. PPP and SDLC

D. PPP and HDLC

117 Extended range of V-LAN –ID?

a)1-1005

b)1006-4094

c)1-4092

d)0-4094

118. VTP is a proprietry advertisement protocol of

a)cisco

b)Nortel

c)juniper

d)IEEE

1.Wild card mask value of 192.168.30.12/30?

2.Which command configures switchport Fa0/20 INTO vlan 25?

a)(configif)# siwtchport VALN 25

b)(configif)# switchport Access VLAN 25

c)(configif)# switchport 25

d)(configif)# switchport Mode VALN 25

3.IEEE standard number for LAN tagging protocol across trunk ports?

a)802.1d

b)802.1w

c0802.1q

d)802.1g

4.Hubs are placed in which layer of OSI model?

5.Data across OSI transport layer is called as

a)data

b)segment

c)packet
d)frame

6.Which port is selected as the root port by STP?

7.In layer-2 network STP Root bridge is selected based on?

a)highest priority

b)lowest priority

c)highest mac-address when there is tie in priority

d)lowest mac address when there is no tie in priority

8.when a switch begins running RSTP receives an 802.1D BPDU,what

happens?

a)the BPDU is discarded or dropped

b)an ICMP message is returned

c)the switch begins to use 802.1D rules on that port

d)the switch disables RSTP

9.PPP is used as a WAN encapsulation between two routers which one
os true regarding PPP?

a)PPP supports TCP/IP but not Novell IPX

b)PPP is being phased out of existence by the serial line internet

protocol

c)PPP provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over

both synchronous and asynchronous circuit

d)PPP is an ITU-T and ANSI standard that defines the process for
sending data over a packet switched data network

10.Two routers are connected via PPP connection .which of the

following are key characteristics of a PPP connection?

a)PPP can be used over analog circuits

b)PPP maps layer 2 to layer 3 address

c)PPP provides error connection

d)PPP provides error connection

e)PPP supports IP only

f)PPP provides encryption services

a)A,B,C

b)C,E,F

c)A,B,D
d)C,D,E

11.In a point -point connection between two offices.which PPP

subprotocol negotiates authentication protocol?

a)NCP

b)ISDN

c)SLIP

d)LCP

12.Which statements are true regarding ISDN channels?

a)Each B channel can transmit upto 64 kbps

b)ISDN B channel carries voice or data

c)ISDN D channel transmits control information

d)the D channel transmission rates varies depending on the service

used

e)HDLC or PPP can be used to encapsulate D channel information

a)A,D,E

b)A,B,C

c)B,C,D
d)C,D,E

13.what command provised the details on the layer 2 transaction

occuring between ISDN switch and the router?

a)debug dialer packet

b)debug isdn q931

c)debug ip packets

d)debug isdn q921

14.which channels are used by ISDN BRI?

a)2d+b

b)23d+b

c)2b+d

d)23b+d

15.what is the class of IP address for the following network

192.108.192.0?

a)class c
b)class B

c)class D

d)class A

16.In modulation process the higher frequency signal that modifies the
baseband signal is called?

a)carrier signal

b)message signal

c)broadcast signal

d)none

17.max length of 10BaseT topology?

a)150 meters

b)200 meters

c)100 meters

d)500 meters

18.what does a gateway do in a H.323 network?

a)zone management

b)bandwidth management

c)protocol conversion between dissimilar network

d)address translation

19.what is CRM?

a)customer relationship marketing

b)customer relationship management

c)certified risk manager

d)crew resource management

20.what is the function of a gateway in a converged network?

a)provides quality of service to converged network

b)provides admission translation and address control between IP

endpoints

c)manages calls between 3 or more endpoints to facilitate multipoint

conferencing

d)performs call setup and addr translation between circuit switched

and packet switched network.
21.which codec will support voice activity detection and comfort noise
generation?

a)G.732.1

b)G.726

c)G.711

d)G.729B

22.to provide an accurate digital representation of an analog signal a

devise requires?

a)8 data bits sampled at 64000 times per second

b)8 data bits sampled eery 193 milliseconds

c)64 bits sampled 8 times a second

d)8 data bits sampled at 8000 times per second

23.the digitaization standard in the PSTN uses a sampling rate of?

a)4 khz

b)6 khz

c)8 khz
d)10 khz

24.__________ is a feature of some telephone systems that allow a

person to put a call on hold at one telephone set and pick up the call
from any other telephone set?

a)call park

b)call waiting

c)call forward

d)call pick-up

25.call waiting is a __________ type of signal?

a)supervisory

b)addressing

c)seizure

d)information

26.ground start signalling

a)first request a dial tone'

b)first handshakes with the PSTN or CO

c)first requests a DC voltage

d)first loop get closed

27.how does an organisation uses resources and capabilities in

creating value?

a)they are used to create value in the form of output for production
management

b)they are used to create value in the form of good & services

c)they are used to create value to the IT organisation for service

support

28.in a push-button telephone each dialed digit is represented by

means of

a)3 frequencies

b)2 frequencies

c)pulses

d)all the above

29._____ is a point-point communication link in which a call is
automatically directed to the pre-selected destination without any
additional action by the user when the end instrument goes off-hook?

a)redial

b)speed dial

c)hotline

d)short dial

30.what is the sampling frequency?

a)8000 khz

b)64 khz

c)4 khz

d)8 khz

31.which feature reads an entire frame before forwarding?

a)store & forward

b)spanning tree protocol

c)cut-through

d)none of the above

32.which of these technologies are circuit switched?

a)ISDN

b)VoIP

c)VoATM

d)VoFR

33.What is the benefit of gatekeeper call admission control?

34.which is true about MGCP?

a)call completion is always shared with some intelligence on the

endpoint some on the call agent

b)endpoints may act alone or co-operate with call agent to complete

calls

c)endpoint always take all actions to be completed calls

d)call agents order and direct each step of call completion for the
endpoints
35.what happens if no incoming dial peer matches a router or
gateway?

a)the incoming call legtakes an alternate patH

b)the incoming call legmatches the default dial peer

c)the incoming call legsends a busy to the originator

d)the incoming call legis denied and the call is dropped

36.Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of

people?

a)senior business management and all IT staff

b)senior business managers,IT executives and security manager

c)All customers ,users and IT staff

d)Information security management staff only

37.three main types of as defined in Continual Service

Improvement(CSI)?

38.what are the steps in Continual Improvement Model?

39.what is the importanat factors when subnetting the address?

a)Determine the no of seperate networks required

b)determine how many devices will require DHCP addressing

c)determine which router will be the IP default gateway for each

subnet

d)determine the minimum number of host that will be on each subnet

39.Match

DoD Model <--------------> ISO OSI Model

A.Process /app 1.application

B.Host-to-host 2.presentation

C.Internet 3.session

D.Network Access 4.transport

5.network

6.data link

7.physical

a)A->1+2+3;B->4;C->5+6;D->7

b)A->1+2;B->3+4;C->5;D->6+

c)A->1+2+3;B->4+5;C->6;D->7
d)A->1+2+3;B->4;C->5;D->6+7

40.199.166.131.0 CLASS C subnet mask 255.255.255.224,how many

hosts are able to support one each subnet?

41.which is not part of the 5 core volumes of ITIL V3?

a)servise strategy

b)service strategy design

c)service operation

d)continual service Improvement

41.S8500 server,25 IP tELEPHONY ENDPOINTS ARE

SIMULTANEOUSLY CONNECTED TO 20 DIGITAL SETS,10 IP sets,and 5
CO trunks.How many DSP's are in use if G.711 is incorporated?

a)15

b)25

c)30

d)50
42.what are the steps to assign a service URL to an IP phone button?

43.what is a benefit associated with gatekeeper call admission

control?

a)no requirement to configure cisco IOS commands on the gatekeeper

b)no requirement to configure an intercluster trunk between clusters.

c)provised emergency call-handling capacity if the WAN link fails

d)provised call admission control over the internet in addition to the

WAN

44.what needs to be considered at an Enterprise Survivability

Server(ESS) location when implementing an agent recording solution?

a)H.323 trunks

b)locally sourced announcements

c)Application Enablement Services(AES)

d)Seperation of Bearer and Signalling (SBS)

45.a swich is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 ,in addition
all ports are configured as full duplex fast ethernet .what is the effect
of adding switch ports to a new VALN on this switch?

a)the additon will create more collision domains

b)IP address utilization will be more efficient

c)more bandwidth will be required than was needed previously

d)an additional broadcast domain will be created

46.You are a administrator of 2 subnets called comet and star with a

subnet mask of 255.255.240.0.A user on a windows XP computer
called Noth on the start network complains that she cannot connect to
a windows 2003 server called Haley on the comet network.No other
users on the start network are experiencing similar problem.the IP
address of the router connecting the networks together are
154.44.50.2(to star) and 154.44.19.2 (to comet).You use IPCONFIG
command on North with the following results

IP address 154.44.17.10

Subnet mask address 255.255.240.0

default gatekeeper 154.44.50.2

what could be the problem?

a)subnet mask on North is incorrect

b)default -gateway on North is incorrect

c)IP address of Haley is incorrect

The S87xx platform is available as a net new system in which
configuration?

a) Voice Bearer over ATM

b) Stand Alone (S87xx only)
c) Traditional G3R without IP
d) D) Voice Bearer over IP (IP Connect)
43  of 50
When a call is placed, it is routed toward the destination.
Which call legs are created on that router for the call?

a) long legs
b) short legs
c) inbound call legs only
d) inbound and outbound call legs
When you configure a region to use the G.729 codec, which other
codecs can be utilized in the region?

a) The region will only use the codec configured in the region
configuration field and any other codecs of equal or lower
bandwidtH.
b) The region can use all the codecs supported by Cisco Unified
Communications Manager.
c) The region will use the configured codec and the default codec
as long as it does not exceed the configured bandwidth for the
region.
d) The region will use all of the codecs supported by Cisco Unified
Communications Manager as long as a software Media Termination
Point is available
Which four of the following are Cisco-supported IP telephony
deployment models?
(Choose 4.)
A) Single site
B) Single site with distributed call processing
C) Multisite with centralized call processing
D) Clustering over the IP WAN
E) Multisite with distributed call processing
F) Remote clustering with distributed call processing

a) A,B,C,D
b) B,C,D,E
c) A,C,D,E
d) A,B,E,F
Which term is used to describe the effects of accumulated delays over
a transmission path?

a) Wander
b) Jitter
c) Latency
d) Phase shift
Through troubleshooting, a technician determines that there is a
degraded clocking source on a customer's wide area network (WAN).
Which term would that troubleshooter use to describe this situation?

a) Wander
b) Jitter
c) Latency
d) Attenuation
A customer has two T3 lines and wants to provide for additional
bandwidth. What is the minimum Optical Carrier level that should be
selected to replace them with a single circuit?

a) OC1
b) OC3
 c) OC12
d) OC48
which priority value is selected automatically by PVST to run VLAN1?

a) 1
b) 32768
c) C)32769
d) D)65534
When spanning-tree VLAN vlan-id secondary command is configured,
which priority is calculated for the VLAN?

a) Sets the priority value less than 8192 than the current root
b) Sets the priority value less than 16384 than the current root
c) C)Sets the priority value less than 0 than the current root
d) D)Sets the priority value less than 4096 than the current root
Command to configure VLAN 25 on a layer2 switch?

a) (Config) # VLAN 25
b) (Config-IF) # VLAN 25
c) C)(Config-SUBIF) # VLAN 25
d) D)Switch # VLAN 25
Which channels are used by ISDN BRI?

a) 2d+b
b) 23d+b
c) C)2b+d
d) D)23b+d
Which statements are true regarding ISDN channels? (Select three)
A. Each B channel can transmit up to 64 kbps
B. The ISDN B channel carries voice or data
C. The ISDN D channel transmits control information.
D. The D channel transmission rate varies depending on the service
used.
E. HDLC or PPP can be used to encapsulate D channel information.
 a) A,B,C
b) A,C,F
c) C) B,D,E
d) D) B,C,F
28  of 50
Which ISDN device converts the four-wire BRI signals from an S/T
interface into the two-wire signals of a U interface?

a) TE1
b) NT-2
c) C) TA
d) D) NT-1
What is the default TTL value which is used by router for all of its IP
packets?

a) 32
b) 64
c) 128
d) 255
What is the default TTL value which is used by router for all of its IP
packets?

a) 32
b) 64
c) 128
d) 255

Which one can be used as data-link layer protocol for wireless LAN
topology ?

a) 802.11 standard protocols

b) Token ring
 c) FDDI
d) ethernet_II
Find out the broadcast IP address from the following
192.168.25.7/30,
192.168.50.3/30,
192.168.75.63/30
192.168.100.98/30

a) 192.168.25.7/30
b) 192.168.50.3/30
c) 192.168.75.63/30
d) 192.168.100.98/30
75? line impedance is said to be

a) Balanced
b) Unbalanced
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
Off-hook is_________signaling

a) Supervisory
b) Addressing
c) Seizure
d) Information
In the united states and Japan,an ISDN PRI line is equivalent to which
of the following?

a) A T3 line
b) An E1 line
c) An T1 line
d) An OC-1 line
A new business in Great Britain needs to have a PSTN connection that
will handle a maximum of 30 inbound and outbound calls at any given
time.

a) QSIG
b) ISDN E1 PRI
c) ISDN BRI
d) ISDN T1 PRI