2014

Sample
FRM Part I
Practice
Exam
 2014 Sample FRM Part I Practice Exam

TABLE OF CONTENTS

FRM Part I Sample Questions Candidate Answer Sheet . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .3

FRM Part I Sample Questions Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .5

FRM Part I Sample Questions Answer Sheet/Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .11

FRM Part I Sample Questions Explanations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .13

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2014
Sample
FRM Part I
Practice Exam

Answer Sheet
 2014 Sample FRM Part I Practice Exam

a. b. c. d.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Correct way to complete

1.    

Wrong way to complete

1. ✓ ✘

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in any format without prior written approval of GARP, Global Association of Risk Professionals, Inc.
2014
Sample
FRM Part I
Practice Exam

Questions
 2014 Sample FRM Part I Practice Exam

1. Using a new risk-reporting software system, 100 reports are generated independently with an average time
of 188 seconds and a standard deviation of 60 seconds. What is the t-statistic to test the null hypothesis that
the long-run average report generation time is 180 seconds?

a. 1.14
b. 1.25
c. 1.33
d. 1.46

2. John is forecasting a stock’s performance in 2010 conditional on the state of the economy of the country in
which the firm is based. He divides the economy’s performance into three categories of “GOOD,” “NEUTRAL”
and “POOR” and the stock’s performance into three categories of “increase,” “constant” and “decrease.”

He estimates:

• The probability that the state of the economy is GOOD is 20%. If the state of the economy is GOOD, the
probability that the stock price increases is 80% and the probability that the stock price decreases is 10%.
• The probability that the state of the economy is NEUTRAL is 30%. If the state of the economy is
NEUTRAL, the probability that the stock price increases is 50% and the probability that the stock price
decreases is 30%.
• If the state of the economy is POOR, the probability that the stock price increases is 15% and the
probability that the stock price decreases is 70%.

Billy, his supervisor, asks him to estimate the probability that the state of the economy is NEUTRAL given that
the stock performance is constant. John’s best assessment of that probability is closest to:

a. 6.0%
b. 15.5%
c. 20.0%
d. 38.7%

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2014 Sample FRM Part I Practice Exam

3. A bank had entered into a 3-year interest rate swap for a notional amount of USD 300 million, paying a
fixed rate of 7.5% per year and receiving LIBOR annually. Just after the payment was made at the end of
the first year, the continuously compounded 1-year and 2-year annualized LIBOR rates were 7% per year
and 8% per year, respectively. The value of the swap to the bank at that time was closest to which of the
following choices?

a. USD -14 million

b. USD -4 million
c. USD 4 million
d. USD 14 million

4. On Nov 1, Jimmy Walton, a fund manager of a USD 60 million US medium-to-large cap equity portfolio,
considers locking in the fund's profit from the recent rally. The S&P 500 index and its futures with the
multiplier of 250 are trading at USD 900 and USD 910, respectively. Instead of selling off his holdings, he
would rather hedge two-thirds of his market exposure over the remaining 2 months. Given that the correlation
between Jimmy’s portfolio and the S&P 500 index futures is 0.89 and the volatilities of the equity fund and
the futures are 0.51 and 0.48 per year, respectively, what position should he take to achieve his objective?

a. Sell 250 S&P 500 futures contracts

b. Sell 169 S&P 500 futures contracts
c. Sell 167 S&P 500 futures contracts
d. Sell 148 S&P 500 futures contracts

5. On the OTC market there are two options available on Microsoft stock: a European put with premium of
USD 2.25 and an American call option with premium of USD 0.46. Both options have a strike price of USD 24
and an expiration date 3 months from now. Microsoft’s stock price is currently at USD 22 and no dividend
is due during the next 6 months. Assuming that there is no arbitrage opportunity, which of the following
choices is closest to the level of the risk-free rate:

a. 0.25%
b. 1.76%
c. 3.52%
d. Insufficient information to determine.

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 2014 Sample FRM Part I Practice Exam

6. An analyst is doing a study on the effect on option prices of changes in the price of the underlying asset. The
analyst wants to find out when the deltas of calls and puts are most sensitive to changes in the price of the
underlying. Assume that the options are European and that the Black-Scholes formula holds. An increase in
the price of the underlying has the largest absolute value impact on delta for:

a. Deep in-the-money calls and deep out-of-the-money puts.

b. Deep in-the-money puts and calls.
c. Deep out-of-the-money puts and calls.
d. At-the-money puts and calls.

7. The yield curve is upward sloping, and a portfolio manager has a long position in 10-year Treasury Notes
funded through overnight repurchase agreements. The risk manager is concerned with the risk that market
rates may increase further and reduce the market value of the position. What hedge could be put on to
reduce the position’s exposure to rising rates?

a. Enter into a 10-year pay fixed and receive floating interest rate swap.
b. Enter into a 10-year receive fixed and pay floating interest rate swap.
c. Establish a long position in 10-year Treasury Note futures.
d. Buy a call option on 10-year Treasury Note futures.

8. The table below gives the closing prices and yields of a particular liquid bond over the past few days.

Day Price Yield

Monday 106.3 4.25%
Tuesday 105.8 4.20%
Wednesday 106.1 4.23%

What is the approximate duration of the bond?

a. 18.8
b. 9.4
c. 4.7
d. 1.9

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2014 Sample FRM Part I Practice Exam

9. Tom is evaluating four funds run by four independent managers relative to a benchmark portfolio that has an
expected return of 6.4% and volatility of 12%. He is interested in investing in the fund with the highest
information ratio that also meets the following conditions in his investment guidelines:

I. Expected residual return must be at least 2%

II. The Sharpe ratio must be at least 0.2

Based on the following information and a risk free rate of 5%, which fund should he choose?

Fund Expected Return Volatility Residual Risk Information Ratio

Fund A 8.4% 14.3% 1.1
Fund B 16.4% 2.4% 0.9
Fund C 17.8% 1.5% 1.3
Fund D 8.5% 19.1% 1.8%

a. Fund A
b. Fund B
c. Fund C
d. Fund D

10. Portfolio Q has a beta of 0.7 and an expected return of 12.8%. The market risk premium is 5.25%. The risk-free
rate is 4.85%. Calculate Jensen’s Alpha measure for Portfolio Q.

a. 7.67%
b. 2.70%
c. 5.73%
d. 4.27%

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2014
Sample
FRM Part I
Practice Exam

Answers
 2014 Sample FRM Part I Practice Exam

a. b. c. d.

1. 

2. 

3. 

4. 

5. 

6. 

7. 

8. 

9. 

10. 

Correct way to complete

1.    

Wrong way to complete

1. ✓ ✘

© 2014 Global Association of Risk Professionals. All rights reserved. It is illegal to reproduce this material 11
in any format without prior written approval of GARP, Global Association of Risk Professionals, Inc.
2014
Sample
FRM Part I
Practice Exam

Explanations
 2014 Sample FRM Part I Practice Exam

1. Using a new risk-reporting software system, 100 reports are generated independently with an average time
of 188 seconds and a standard deviation of 60 seconds. What is the t-statistic to test the null hypothesis that
the long-run average report generation time is 180 seconds?

a. 1.14
b. 1.25
c. 1.33
d. 1.46

Answer: c.

Explanation:
The standard error of the average time is equal to 60/sqrt(100) = 6. Therefore the t statistic is (188-180)/6 = 1.33.

Topic: Quantitative Analysis

Subtopic: Interpreting and using regression coefficients, the t-statistic, and other output.
AIMS: Define and construct an appropriate null and alternative hypothesis, and calculate an appropriate test
statistic.
Reference: Michael Miller, Mathematics and Statistics for Financial Risk Management (Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley &
Sons, 2012), Chapter 5—Hypothesis Testing and Confidence Intervals.

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2014 Sample FRM Part I Practice Exam

2. John is forecasting a stock’s performance in 2010 conditional on the state of the economy of the country in
which the firm is based. He divides the economy’s performance into three categories of “GOOD,” “NEUTRAL”
and “POOR” and the stock’s performance into three categories of “increase,” “constant” and “decrease.”

He estimates:

• The probability that the state of the economy is GOOD is 20%. If the state of the economy is GOOD, the
probability that the stock price increases is 80% and the probability that the stock price decreases is 10%.
• The probability that the state of the economy is NEUTRAL is 30%. If the state of the economy is
NEUTRAL, the probability that the stock price increases is 50% and the probability that the stock price
decreases is 30%.
• If the state of the economy is POOR, the probability that the stock price increases is 15% and the
probability that the stock price decreases is 70%.

Billy, his supervisor, asks him to estimate the probability that the state of the economy is NEUTRAL given that
the stock performance is constant. John’s best assessment of that probability is closest to:

a. 6.0%
b. 15.5%
c. 20.0%
d. 38.7%

Answer: d.

Explanation:
Use Bayes’ Theorem:
P(NEUTRAL | Constant) = P(Constant | NEUTRAL) * P(NEUTRAL) / P(Constant)
= 0.2 * 0.3 / (0.1 * 0.2 + 0.2 * 0.3 + 0.15 * 0.5) = 0.387

Topic: Quantitative Analysis

Subtopic: Discrete and continuous probability distributions
AIMS: Define and calculate a conditional probability, and distinguish between conditional and unconditional
probabilities.
Reference: Michael Miller, Mathematics and Statistics for Financial Risk Management (Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley &
Sons, 2012), Chapter 2—Probabilities.

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 2014 Sample FRM Part I Practice Exam

3. A bank had entered into a 3-year interest rate swap for a notional amount of USD 300 million, paying a
fixed rate of 7.5% per year and receiving LIBOR annually. Just after the payment was made at the end of
the first year, the continuously compounded 1-year and 2-year annualized LIBOR rates were 7% per year
and 8% per year, respectively. The value of the swap to the bank at that time was closest to which of the
following choices?

a. USD -14 million

b. USD -4 million
c. USD 4 million
d. USD 14 million

Answer: c.

Explanation:
Fixed rate coupon = USD 300 million x 7.5% = USD 22.5 million
Value of the fixed payment = Bfix = 22.5 e(-0.07) + 322.5 e(-0.08*2)
= USD 295.80 million
Value of the floating payment = Bfloating = USD 300 million. Since the payment has just been made the value of
the floating rate is equal to the notional amount.
Value of the swap = Bfloating - Bfix = USD 300 – USD 295.80 = USD 4.2 million

Topic: Financial Markets and Products

Subtopic: Forwards, futures, swaps and options: Pricing and factors that affect it
AIMS: Calculate the value of a plain vanilla interest rate swap based on two simultaneous bond positions.
Reference: Hull, Options, Futures and Other Derivatives, 8th Edition, Chapter 7—Swaps.

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2014 Sample FRM Part I Practice Exam

4. On Nov 1, Jimmy Walton, a fund manager of a USD 60 million US medium-to-large cap equity portfolio,
considers locking in the fund's profit from the recent rally. The S&P 500 index and its futures with the
multiplier of 250 are trading at USD 900 and USD 910, respectively. Instead of selling off his holdings, he
would rather hedge two-thirds of his market exposure over the remaining 2 months. Given that the correlation
between Jimmy’s portfolio and the S&P 500 index futures is 0.89 and the volatilities of the equity fund and
the futures are 0.51 and 0.48 per year, respectively, what position should he take to achieve his objective?

a. Sell 250 S&P 500 futures contracts

b. Sell 169 S&P 500 futures contracts
c. Sell 167 S&P 500 futures contracts
d. Sell 148 S&P 500 futures contracts

Answer: c.

Explanation:
The calculation is as follows: Two-thirds of the equity fund is worth USD 40 million. The optimal hedge ratio is given
by h = 0.89 * 0.51 / 0.48 = 0.945
The number of futures contracts is given by
N=0.945 * 40,000,000 / (910 * 250) = 166.26 ≈ 167, round up to nearest integer.

Topic: Financial Markets and Products

Subtopic: Forwards, futures, swaps and options: Uses in hedging and hedging strategies
AIMS: Compute the optimal number of futures contracts needed to hedge an exposure, and explain and calculate
the “tailing the hedge” adjustment.
Reference: Hull, Options, Futures and Other Derivatives, 8th Edition, Chapter 3—Hedging Strategies Using Futures.

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 2014 Sample FRM Part I Practice Exam

5. On the OTC market there are two options available on Microsoft stock: a European put with premium of
USD 2.25 and an American call option with premium of USD 0.46. Both options have a strike price of USD 24
and an expiration date 3 months from now. Microsoft’s stock price is currently at USD 22 and no dividend
is due during the next 6 months. Assuming that there is no arbitrage opportunity, which of the following
choices is closest to the level of the risk-free rate:

a. 0.25%
b. 1.76%
c. 3.52%
d. Insufficient information to determine.

Answer: c.

Explanation:
Due to the fact that the American call option under consideration is on a stock which does not pay dividends, its
value is equal to that of a European call option with the same parameters. Thus, put-call parity can be applied to
determine the interest rate.

C – P = S – K e-rT
0.46 – 2.25 = 22 – 24 e-0.25r
- 23.79 = -24e-0.25r
r = 3.52%

Topic: Financial Markets and Products

Subtopic: Forwards, futures, swaps and options: Pricing and factors that affect it
AIMS: Explain put-call parity and apply it to the valuation of European and American stock options.
Reference: Hull, Options, Futures and Other Derivatives, 8th Edition, Chapter 10—Properties of Stock Options,
Chapter 11—Trading Strategies Involving Options.

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2014 Sample FRM Part I Practice Exam

6. An analyst is doing a study on the effect on option prices of changes in the price of the underlying asset. The
analyst wants to find out when the deltas of calls and puts are most sensitive to changes in the price of the
underlying. Assume that the options are European and that the Black-Scholes formula holds. An increase in
the price of the underlying has the largest absolute value impact on delta for:

a. Deep in-the-money calls and deep out-of-the-money puts.

b. Deep in-the-money puts and calls.
c. Deep out-of-the-money puts and calls.
d. At-the-money puts and calls.

Answer: d.

Explanation:
When both calls and puts are at-the-money, deltas are most sensitive to changes in the underlying asset (Gammas
are largest when options are at-the-money).

Topic: Valuation and Risk Models

Subtopic: Option valuation: The "Greeks"
AIMS: Define and describe delta, theta, gamma, vega, and rho for option positions.
Reference: Hull, Options, Futures and Other Derivatives, 8th Edition, Chapter 18—The Greek Letters.

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 2014 Sample FRM Part I Practice Exam

7. The yield curve is upward sloping, and a portfolio manager has a long position in 10-year Treasury Notes
funded through overnight repurchase agreements. The risk manager is concerned with the risk that market
rates may increase further and reduce the market value of the position. What hedge could be put on to
reduce the position’s exposure to rising rates?

a. Enter into a 10-year pay fixed and receive floating interest rate swap.
b. Enter into a 10-year receive fixed and pay floating interest rate swap.
c. Establish a long position in 10-year Treasury Note futures.
d. Buy a call option on 10-year Treasury Note futures.

Answer: a.

Explanation:
An increase in rates will increase the value of the hedge position and offset the loss in value from the bond position.

Topic: Financial Markets and Products

Subtopic: Forwards, futures, options and swaps: Uses in hedging and hedging strategies
AIMS: Explain the mechanics of a plain vanilla interest rate swap and compute its cash flows.
Reference: John Hull, Options, Futures, and Other Derivatives, 8th Edition, Chapter 7—Swaps.

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in any format without prior written approval of GARP, Global Association of Risk Professionals, Inc.
2014 Sample FRM Part I Practice Exam

8. The table below gives the closing prices and yields of a particular liquid bond over the past few days.

Day Price Yield

Monday 106.3 4.25%
Tuesday 105.8 4.20%
Wednesday 106.1 4.23%

What is the approximate duration of the bond?

a. 18.8
b. 9.4
c. 4.7
d. 1.9

Answer: b.

Explanation:
The duration can be approximated from the price changes.
(106.3 – 105.8) / 106.3 / .0005 = 9.4
(106.3 – 106.1) / 106.3 / .0002 = 9.4

Topic: Valuation and Risk Models

Subtopic: Fixed income valuation: One-factor measures of price sensitivity
AIMS: Define, compute, and interpret the effective duration of a fixed income security given a change in yield and
the resulting change in price.
Reference: Bruce Tuckman, Fixed Income Securities, 3rd Edition (Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, 2011),
Chapter 4—One-Factor Risk Metrics and Hedges.

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 2014 Sample FRM Part I Practice Exam

9. Tom is evaluating four funds run by four independent managers relative to a benchmark portfolio that has an
expected return of 6.4% and volatility of 12%. He is interested in investing in the fund with the highest
information ratio that also meets the following conditions in his investment guidelines:

I. Expected residual return must be at least 2%

II. The Sharpe ratio must be at least 0.2

Based on the following information and a risk free rate of 5%, which fund should he choose?

Fund Expected Return Volatility Residual Risk Information Ratio

Fund A 8.4% 14.3% 1.1
Fund B 16.4% 2.4% 0.9
Fund C 17.8% 1.5% 1.3
Fund D 8.5% 19.1% 1.8%

a. Fund A
b. Fund B
c. Fund C
d. Fund D

Answer: a.

Sharpe Ratio = Return Premium over Risk Free Rate / Volatility = E(RP – Rf) / σ
Explanation:

Fund A: Expected residual return = 8.4% - 6.4% = 2.0%, Sharpe Ratio = (8.4% - 5%) / 14.3% = 0.238
Fund B: Expected residual return = information ratio * residual risk = 0.9 * 2.4% = 2.16%
Sharpe Ratio = (2.16% + 6.4% - 5%) / 16.4% = 0.217
Fund C: Expected residual return = information ratio * residual risk = 1.3 * 1.5% = 1.95%
Fund D: Expected residual return = 8.5% - 6.4% = 2.1%
Information ratio = 2.1% / 1.8% = 1.16
Sharpe Ratio = (8.5% - 5%) / 19.1% = 0.183

Both funds A and B meet the requirements. Fund A has the higher information ratio.

Topic: Foundations of Risk Management

Subtopic: Risk-adjusted performance measurement
AIMS: Compute and interpret tracking error, the information ratio, and the Sortino ratio.
Reference: Noel Amenc and Veronique Le Sourd, Portfolio Theory and Performance Analysis (West Sussex, England:
John Wiley & Sons, 2003), Chapter 4, Section 4.2 only—Applying the CAPM to Performance Measurement: Single-
Index Performance Measurement Indicators.

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2014 Sample FRM Part I Practice Exam

10. Portfolio Q has a beta of 0.7 and an expected return of 12.8%. The market risk premium is 5.25%. The risk-free
rate is 4.85%. Calculate Jensen’s Alpha measure for Portfolio Q.

a. 7.67%
b. 2.70%
c. 5.73%
d. 4.27%

Answer: d.

Explanation:

E(RP ) − RF = αP + βP(E(RM) − RF); therefore αP = E(RP ) − RF − βP(E(RM) − RF).

Jensen’s alpha is defined by:

Hence, Jensen's alpha of this fund = 0.128 – 0.0485 – 0.7 * (0.0525 + 0.0485 − 0.0485) = 0.0427.

Topic: Foundations of Risk Management.

Subtopic: Risk-adjusted performance measurement
AIMS: Calculate, compare, and evaluate the Treynor measure, the Sharpe measure, and Jensen’s alpha.
Reference: Noel Amenc and Veronique Le Sourd, Portfolio Theory and Performance Analysis (West Sussex,
England:John Wiley & Sons, 2003), Chapter 4, Section 4.2 only-Applying the CAPM to Performance Measurement:
Single-Index Performance Measurement Indicators.

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