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Infosys Quant

This document contains a series of 50 questions in multiple choice format that test quantitative, logical reasoning, and verbal skills. The questions cover topics such as arithmetic, algebra, data interpretation, probability, time and work problems, sequences, and fill-in-the-blank verbal questions.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
715 views

Infosys Quant

This document contains a series of 50 questions in multiple choice format that test quantitative, logical reasoning, and verbal skills. The questions cover topics such as arithmetic, algebra, data interpretation, probability, time and work problems, sequences, and fill-in-the-blank verbal questions.

Uploaded by

saieswar4u
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as DOC, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 23

INFOSYS QUANTS

1. Given:
If POINT
+ ZERO
--------------
ENERGY
--------------
Find the value of E + N + E + R + G + Y.
(a) 11 (b) 14 (c) 13 (d) 17
2. 4 Boys and 6 girls can do work for 8 days similarly 3 boys and 7 girls can complete
in 10 days if 8 girls do the same work how long it would take in days.
(a) 18 (b) 48 (c) 50 (d) 58
3. Find the sum of all possible 4 digits numbers that can be formed from 1, 2, 3, 4
where no digits are repeated.
(a) 68680 (b) 66660 (c) 68882 (d) 88880
4. Without stoppage, a train travels a certain distance with an average speed of 60
km/h, and with stoppage it covers the same distance with an average speed of 40
km/h. On an average, how many minutes per hour does train stop during the
journey ?
(a) 15mins/hr (b) 20 mins/hr (c) 25 mins/hr (d) 30 mins/hr
5. Pipe A, B, C can empty a full tank in 12, 15, 20 hrs. When will they empty the full
tank when Pipe A is constantly opened and pipe B & pipe C opened alternatively
one hour each?
(a) 7 hrs (b) 8 hrs (c) 6.5 hrs (d) 6 hrs
6. If a 10 lit. mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 2:1 then, how much more
mixture should be added to change the ratio to 1:2 ?
(a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 30 (d) 5
7. Find how many 4 digit numbers can be formed from 1, 2, 3, 5 which are divisible
by 25 without repetition
(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 24 (d) 6
8. T O M
+NAG
----------
GOAT
----------
If M=6, what is the value of G + O + N + T?
(a) 11 (b) 13 (c) 16 (d) 17
9. If HOW + MUCH = POWER, then what is the value of P + O + W + E + R?
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13
10. If USA + USSR = PEACE, then what is the value of P + E + A + C + E =?
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 15
11.Two persons A and B appeared in an interview for two vacancies for the same
post. The probability of A’s selection is 1/7 and that of B is 1/5. What is the
probability that only one of them are selected ?
(a) 1/7
(b) 1/35
(c) 2/7
(d) 3/21
12. Probability of getting selected in Wipro is 1/6 and in Infosys is 1/8 and getting
selected in both is 1/24. What is the probability of not getting selected in both
Wipro and Infosys?
(a) 1/2
(b) 3/4
(c) 3/8
(d) 1/3
13. A Ram & Shyam started from a point X and Y respectively and started moving
towards each other. After they met Ram took 4 hours to reach Y and Shyam took 16
hours to reach X. Ram’s speed is 48 kmph. What is the speed of Shyam?
(a) 24kmph
(b) 56kmph
(c) 32kmph
(d) 12kmph
14. A shopkeeper has 13 washing machines out of which 5 are defective. A
customer buys 3 washing machine. What is the probability that exactly one
machine is defective?
(a) 1/20
(b) 1/5
(c) 70/143
(d) 35/143
15. 2 yellow balls, 3 green balls & 2 blue balls are present in a container. 2 balls are
drawn in a random way. What is the probability that none of them is blue?
(a) 5/9
(b) 2/9
(c) 1/3
(d) 10/21
16. Shanti's school normally FINISHES AT 4 PM. her mom drives from home to pick
her up, reaching the school exactly at 4 pm. one day, a half holiday is announced
and the School finishes for the day at 1 pm. Rather than sitting and Waiting , Shanti
decides to start walking towards home. Her mother meets her along the way and as
a result they reach home an hour earlier than normal. what is the ratio of the
Shanti's walking speed to her mother's driving Speed?
(a) 2:5
(b) 3:5
(c) 1:5
(d) 4:2
17. What is the probability of getting two balls from either yellow or green from 2
yellow, 3 green and 2 blue balls. (a) 10/21
(b) 8/21
(c) 18/21
(d) 20/21
18. In a solution,75% is orange juice and remaining is water. From this, if 20% is
taken out, what will be the percentage of orange juice in the final solution?
(a) 60
(b) 65
(c) 90
(d) 70
19. How many zero’s are there in 100! ?
(a) 20
(b) 2
(c) 24
(d) 25
20. If A and B work together, they will complete a job in 7.5 days. However, if A
works alone and completes half the job and then B takes over and completes the
remaining half alone, they will be able to complete the job in 20 days. How long will
B alone take to do the job if A is more efficient than B?
(a) 20 days
(b) 40 days
(c) 36 days
(d) 30 days
21. What is the 11th term in the series?
5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 65, ______
(a) 122
(b) 100
(c) 145
(d) 147
22. Three friends divided some bullets equally. After all of them shot 4 bullets the
total number of bullets remaining is equal to the bullets each had after division.
Find the original number divided.
(a) 18
(b) 20
(c) 16
(d) 24
23.There are five thieves, each loot a bakery one after the other such that the first
one takes 1/2 of the total no. of the breads plus 1/2 of a bread. Similarly 2nd,
3rd,4th and 5fth also did the same. After the fifth one no. of breads remained are 3.
Initially how many breads were there?
(a) 125
(b) 126
(c) 127
(d) 128
24.If side of the square triples its initial side, then perimeter equals the area of the
new square, find the side of square.
(a) 4/3
(b) ¼
(c) 1/2
(d) 2/3
25. If a:b is 1:5, b:c is 3:2. Then find a+b/c
(a) 1/4
(b) 10/13
(c) 9/2
(d) 5/13
26. Ramesh travels 760 Km to his home, Partly by train and partly by car. He takes 8
hours, if he travels 160 km by train and rest by car. He takes 12 minutes more, if he
travels 240 km by train and the rest by car. What are the speeds of the train and of
the car?
(a) Car = 90 kmph, train = 60 kmph
(b) Car = 100 kmph, train = 80 kmph
(c) Car = 80 kmph, train = 70 kmph
(d) Car = 100 kmph, train = 90 kmph
27. A sum of Rs.25 was paid for a work which A can do in 32 days, B in 20 days, B
and C in 12 days and D in 24 days. How much did C receive if all the four work
together ?
(a) Rs. 14/3
(b) Rs. 16/3
(c) Rs. 15/3
(d) Rs. 17/3
28. If a goat is tied to a pole at point A with a rope 12m long such that it can enter a
triangle ABC with AB=AC= 10m and angle A = 30deg . How much area can it gaze
(a) Less than 132 pi
(b) More than 132 pi
(c) Equal to 132 pi
(d) None
29. In an exam 49% candidates failed in English and 36% failed in Hindi and 15%
failed in both subjects. If the total number of candidates who passed in English
alone is 630. What is the total number of candidates appeared in exam?
(a) 2000
(b) 2500
(c) 3000
(d) 3500
30. P says to Q "I am thrice as old as you were when i was as old as you are". If the
sum of their present age is 100 years, then the present age of Q?
(a) 60
(b) 40
(c) 30
(d) 20
31. If RIDE + DRIVE = NEVER. What is the value of R + I + D + E? (Given that value of
E is 3)
(a) 23
(b) 24
(c) 22
(d) 25
(e) None of these
32. YOUR+YOU=HEART,
The value of O=4. Find the value of Y+U+R+E?
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 17
(d) 18
33. What is the next number in the following series?
7, 10, 19, 14, 17, 19, 21, ?
(a) 22
(b) 24
(c) 23
(d) 35
(e) 21
34. The smallest number having 5 factors is x. Then find the value of x.
(a) 32
(b) 27
(c) 64
(d) None of these
35. In the given diagram, there is a 5 m gap given for a walk in the garden. If the
outside square has a perimeter of 340 m, then find the cost of flooring pavement
space allocated for walking. It costs Rs.8 per square meter for flooring.

(a) 12800
(b) 6600
(c) 6400
(d) None of these
36. A and B start simultaneously at 8:00 am from 2 cities namely Delhi and Srinagar
respectively separated by a distance of 72 km. A starts at a uniform speed of
4kmph. B starts at the same time as A and travels at the rate of 2 kmph for the 1st
hour, 2.5 kmph for 2nd hour, 3 kmph for the 3rd hour and so on. At what time do
they meet?
(a) 5:00 pm
(b) 5:30 pm
(c) 4:00 pm
(d) None of these
37. Find the 9th term of the sequence. 1,2,4,6,10,12,16,...
(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 22
(d) 23
(e) 21
38. Find the missing terms in the series?
1, 3, 5, 9, 15, _, 41, _?
(a) 31 & 53
(b) 15 & 21
(c) 27 & 81
(d) 25 & 67
39. Sugar at Rs.5/kg is mixed with another variety of sugar costing RS.6/kg in the
ratio 1:5 and sold at 20% profit. What is the selling price of sugar?
(a) 7
(b) 7.2
(c) 8
(d) 6.4
40. Class P has 30 students of which 20 like Music. In class Q, 10 students like
Music. Find the number of students in Class Q if the average number of students
who like Music in a class is 16.
(a) 22
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 25
Data Interpretation
Study the following line graph and answer the questions
Exports from Three Companies Over the Years (in Rs. Crore)
41. For which of the following pairs of years the total exports from the three
Companies together are equal?

(a) 1995 and 1998


(b) 1996 and 1998
(c) 1997 and 1998
(d) 1995 and 1996
42. Average annual exports during the given period for Company Y is approximately
what percent of the average annual exports for Company Z?
(a) 87.12%
(b) 89.64%
(c) 91.21%
(d) 93.33%
43. In which year was the difference between the exports from Companies X and Y
the minimum?

(a) 1994
(b) 1995
(c) 1996
(d) 1999
44. What was the difference between the average exports of the three Companies
in 1993 and the average exports in 1998?
(a) Rs.15.33crores
(b) Rs.18.67crores
(c) Rs.20 crores
(d) Rs.22.17crores
45. In how many of the given years, were the exports from Company Z more than
the average annual exports over the given years?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
INFOSYS VERBAL
Directions for Q1 to Q2: Fill in the blanks with the options given below
46. A journalist's job is not always to make people smile______things that make
them anxious and sit up and take notice.
(a) and to tell them
(b) for telling them
(c) but to tell them
(d) in telling them
47. Due to the carelessness of the hunter, the driver ________ killed.
(a) was nearly
(b) nearly can have been
(c) nearly could be
(d) was almost nearly
48. All German philosophers, except for Marx, are idealists. From which of the
following can the statement above be most properly inferred?
(a) Except for Marx, if someone is an idealist philosopher, then he or she is
German.
(b) Marx is the only non-German philosopher who is an idealist.
(c) Marx is not an idealist German philosopher.
(d) Aside from the philosopher Marx, if someone is a German philosopher, then he
or she is an idealist.
49. Potato wafers and French fries are globally popular in-between snacks. It is also
an accompaniment to dishes like Fish, chips, steak, sandwiches and burgers etc.
Recent research studies have revealed that potatoes deep fried in hot oil releases a
chemical called acrylamide. Acrylamide is said to cause cancer.
Which of the following statements is a false assumption?
(a) It is impossible to think of fish and chips without the chips.
(b) Potato wafers and French fries are popular even in India and China.
(c) Everyone who eats French fries will get cancer.
(d) Potato wafers and French fries are fast foods.
50. The lawyer along with his associates, who was accused of the crime, ______
finally going to jail.
(a) is
(b) are
51. A large percentage of the older population ______ not willing to vote for her, so
the chances of her winning are very less.
(a) is
(b) are
52. The Brahmanas, the Arayakas and the Upanishads are attached ______ the four
Vedas.
(a) to one another of
(b) with one another of
(c) to one or the other of
(d) to either of
53. Parks in Kodaikanal are ______________Bangalore.
(a) much better than those in
(b) much better then those in
(c) much better than
(d) much better than that in
54. Sheila was selected for the job as she already ________.
(a) has a little experience
(b) has little experience
(c) had a little experience
(d) had little experience
55. 10.As she ______ interest, she was not selected by the company.
(a) has a little
(b) has little
(c) had a little
(d) had little
56. Professor John Brown sets extremely difficult class exam question papers for his
students, for he believes that__________mariner.
(a) an albatross was the undoing of the ancient
(b) a smooth sea never made a skilled
(c) a seagull has to be smart enough for the
(d) a rough ride is part of a

57. He _______ in Bangalore, when he got an offer to work abroad.


(a) was living
(b) is living
(c) had been living
(d) lived
58. Now it's Marco's turn for a symbolic act of male dominance. At the end of Act I
he challenges Eddie to lift a chair by one of its legs with only one of his arms. Eddie
can't do it. Marco easily hoists it over his head. Eddie basically gets a symbolic beat
down. He's emasculated. We haven't seen this kind of behavior from Marco before
now. What could've inspired it? Our best guess is that it's Marco's way of
responding to the growing tension in the Eddie/Catherine/Rodolpho love triangle.
Eddie has just punched Marco's little brother, by beating him in a supposedly
friendly boxing match. The bout ends with Eddie punching Rodolpho a lot harder
than the "friendly" bout would seem to require. Eddie's gesture isn't lost on
Catherine who immediately invites Rodolpho to dance to "Paper Doll." Talk about
tension. Marco seems to understand the increasingly intense social situation pretty
well. He senses Eddie is about to explode and thus we have the emasculating chair
lifting contest. In the stage directions tell us that Marco raises the chair "like a
weapon over Eddie's head". Is the lifting of the chair Marco's symbolic warning to
Eddie? Is it a promise of violence, which Marco later fulfills?
Marco challenges Eddie to lift the chair because ________.
(a) He knows Eddie cannot do it
(b) Marco wants to showcase his male dominance
(c) Eddie punches Marco’s little brother in a boxing match
(d) He perceives the tension and knows Eddie is about to burst
Spot the error in the given sentence.
59. (a) The space station was believed / (b) it will be the stepping stones/ (c) to
Mars and untold riches. / (d) No error
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
DIRECTION: To outsiders, the magnitude of Indians' love for cricket is as
incomprehensible as its feverish intensity. In February 2014, India awarded the
Bharat Ratna, its highest civilian honour, to Sachin Tendulkar, a recently retired
batsman. Millions in India, a country of 1.3 billion people and only one nationally
popular game, celebrated wildly. When India's national side plays a big game, an
estimated 400 million watch on television.
Contrary to what many believe, India’s success at cricket does not explain it; if it did,
hockey would be far more popular. Between 1928 and 1956, India's hockey team
won six consecutive Olympic gold medals, a domination Indian cricketers have
never threatened to rival.
60. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above passage?
(a) The Bharat Ratna can be conferred only to cricketers
(b) Cricket being India’s national sport is loved by most of the countrymen
(c) Hockey ought to be India’s national sport since India’s success at hockey is far
greater
(d) When an India plays an international game, around 400 million follow the game
Directions : Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Virtually everything astronomers known about objects outside the solar system are
based on the detection of photons-quanta of electromagnetic radiation. Yet there is
another form of radiation that permeates the universe: neutrinos. With (as its name
implies) no electric charge, and negligible mass, the neutrino interacts with other
particles so rarely that a neutrino can cross the entire universe, even traversing
substantial aggregations of matter, without being absorbed or even deflected.
Neutrinos can thus escape from regions of space where light and other kinds of
electromagnetic radiation are blocked by matter. Furthermore, neutrinos carry with
them information about the site and circumstances of their production: therefore,
the detection of cosmic neutrinos could provide new information about a wide
variety of cosmic phenomena and about the history of the universe. But how can
scientists detect a particle that interacts so infrequently with other matter? Twenty-
five years passed between Pauli’s hypothesis that the neutrino existed and its actual
detection: since then virtually all research with neutrinos has been with neutrinos
created artificially in large particle accelerators and studied under neutrino
microscopes. But a neutrino telescope, capable of detecting cosmic neutrinos, is
difficult to construct. No apparatus can detect neutrinos unless it is extremely
massive, because great mass is synonymous with huge numbers of nucleons
(neutrons and protons) , and the more massive the detector, the greater the
probability of one of its nucleon’s reacting with a neutrino. In addition, the
apparatus must be sufficiently shielded from the interfering effects of other
particles. Fortunately, a group of astrophysicists has proposed a means of detecting
cosmic neutrinos by harnessing the mass of the ocean. Named DUMAND, for Deep
Underwater Muno and Neutrino Detector, the project calls for placing an array of
light sensors at a depth of five kilometers under the ocean surface. The detecting
medium is the seawater itself: when a neutrino interacts with a particle in an atom
of seawater. The result is a cascade of electrically charged particles and a flash of
light that can be detected by the sensors. The five kilometers of seawater above the
sensors will shield them from the interfering effects of other high-energy particles
raining down through the atmosphere.
The strongest motivation for the DUMAND project is that it will exploit an
important source of information about the universe. The extension of astronomy
from visible light to radio waves to x-rays and gamma rays never failed to lead to the
discovery of unusual objects such as radio galaxies, quasars, and pulsars. Each of
these discoveries came as a surprise. Neutrino astronomy will doubtless bring its
own share of surprises.
61. Which of the following titles suits the passages as a whole?
(a) At the Threshold of Neutrino Astronomy
(b) Neutrinos and the History of the Universe
(c) The Creation and Study of Neutrinos
(d) The DUMAND System and How It Works
62. With which of the following statements regarding neutrino astronomy would
the author be most likely to agree?
(a) Neutrino astronomy will supersede all present forms of astronomy
(b) Neutrino astronomy will be abandoned if the DUMAND project fails
(c) Neutrino astronomy can be expected to lead to major breakthroughs in
astronomy
(d) Neutrino astronomy will disclose phenomena that will be more surprising than
past discoveries
63. In the last paragraph, the author describes the development of astronomy in
order to
(a) suggest that the potential findings of neutrino astronomy can be seen as part of
a series of astronomical successes
(b) illustrate the role of surprise in scientific discovery
(c) demonstrate the effectiveness of the DUMAND apparatus in detecting neutrinos
(d) name some cosmic phenomena that neutrino astronomy will illuminate
64. According to the passage, one advantage that neutrinos have for studies in
astronomy is that they
(a) have been detected for the last twenty-five years
(b) possess a variable electric charge
(c) are usually extremely massive
(d) carry information about their history with them
65. According to the passage, the primary use of the apparatus mentioned in
paragraph 2 would be to.
(a) increase the mass of a neutrino
(b) interpret the information neutrinos
(c) study the internal structure of a neutrino
(d) Detect the presence of cosmic neutrinos
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.
The unique Iron Age Experimental Centre at Lejre, about 40 km west of
Copenhagen, serves as a museum, a classroom and a place to get away from it all.
How did people live during the Iron Age? How did they support themselves? What
did they eat and how did they cultivate the land? These and a myriad of other
questions prodded the pioneers of the Lejre experiment.Living in the open and
working 10 hours a day, volunteers from all over Scandinavia led by 30 experts, built
the first village in the ancient encampment in a matter of months. The house walls
were of clay, the roofs of hay - all based on original designs. Then came the second
stage - getting back to the basics of living. Families were invited to stay in the
'prehistoric village' for a week or two at a time and rough it Iron Age-style.Initially,
this experiment proved none too easy for modern Danes accustomed to central
heating, but it convinced the centre that there was something to the Lejre project.
Little by little, the modern Iron Agers learnt that their huts were, after all, habitable.
The problems were numerous - smoke belching out from the rough-and-ready
fireplaces into the rooms and so on. These problems, however, have led to some
discoveries: domed smoke ovens made of clay, for example, give out more heat and
consume less fuel than an open fire, and when correctly stoked, they are practically
smokeless. By contacting other museums, the Lejre team has been able to
reconstruct ancient weaving looms and pottery kilns. Iron Age dyeing techniques,
using local natural vegetation, have also been revived, as have ancient baking and
cooking methods.
66. What is the main purpose of building the Iron Age experimental center?
(a) Prehistoric village where people can stay for a week or two to get away from
modern living.
(b) Replicate the Iron Age to get a better understanding of the time and people of
that era.
(c) To discover the differences between a doomed smoke oven and an open fire to
identify the more efficient of the two.
(d) Revive activities of ancient women such as weaving, pottery, dyeing, cooking
and baking.
67. What can be the title of the passage?
(a) Modern techniques find their way into pre-historic villages
(b) Co-existence of ancient and modern times
(c) Glad to be living in the 21st Century
(d) Turning back time
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.
Since the late 1970s when the technology for sex determination first came into
being, sex selective abortion has unleashed a saga of horror. Experts are calling it
‘Sanitised Barbarism’. Demographic trends indicate the country is fast heading
towards a million foetuses aborted each year. Although foetal sex determination
and sex selection is an offence in India, the practice is rampant. Private clinics with
ultrasound machines are doing brisk business. Everywhere, people are paying to
know the sex of the unborn child, and paying more to abort the female child. The
technology has reached even remote places through mobile clinics. Dr. Puneet Bedi
obstetrician and specialist in foetal medicine, says these days he hardly sees a
family with two daughters. People are getting the sex determination even for the
first child, he says. The 1991 census showed that two districts had a child sex ratio
(number of girls per thousand boys) less than 850; by 2001 it was 51 districts. Child
rights activist Dr. Sabu George says foeticide is the most extreme form of violence
against women. "Today a girl is several times more likely to be eliminated before
birth than die of various causes during the first year. Nature intended the womb to
be a safe space. Today doctors have made it the most unsafe space for the female
child," he says. He believes that doctors must be held responsible – “They have
aggressively promoted the misuse of technology and legitimised foeticide.”
Akhila Sivadas, Centre for Advocacy and Research, Delhi, feels that the PCPNDT Act
(Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques – Regulation and Prevention
of Misuse) is very well conceived and easy to use. The need of the hour is the legal
literacy to ensure the law is implemented. “The demand and supply debate has
been going on for some time. Doctors say there is a social demand and they are
fulfilling it. They argue that social attitudes must change. However, in this case
supply fuels demand. Technology will have to be regulated. Technology in the hands
of greedy, vested interests cannot be neutral. There is a law to prevent misuse and
we must be able to use it,” she says.On the ‘Demand’ side, experts such as Dr.
Agnihotri argue that women’s participation in workforce, having disposable incomes
and making a contribution to the larger society will make a difference to how
women are seen. Youth icons and role models such as Sania Mirza are making an
impact, he says.Others feel there needs to be widespread visible contempt and
anger in society against this ‘Genocide’- “the kind we saw against the Nithari
killings,” says Dr Bedi. “Today nobody can say that female foeticide is not their
problem.” Time we all did our bit to help save the girl child. Time’s running out.
68. Which of the following will Dr. George agree to?
(a) The girl child is as safe in the mother's womb as after birth
(b) The girl child is safer in the mother's womb in comparison to after birth
(c) The girl child is safer after birth as compared to the mother's womb
(d) None of these
69. What is Akhila Sivadas's opinion on the PCPNDT act?
(a) The act is inconsistent
(b) The act needs reform
(c) The act encourages demand for foeticide
(d) The act is sound, but needs enforcement
70. What is the tone of the passage?
(a) Factual
(b) Biased
(c) Aggressive
(d) Sad
71. what is the solution to the problem of female foeticide as envisioned by Dr.
Bedi?
(a) Effective use of law
(b) Mass public outrage
(c) Comparison with Nithari killing
(d) Contempt towards doctors
72. What does the word ‘sanitised’ imply in the first paragraph of the passage?
(a) Unforgivable
(b) Legitimate
(c) Free from dirt
(d) None of these
73 Which “demand” does the author refer to, in paragraph 5?
(a) Demand for principled doctors
(b) Demand for high income jobs for women
(c) Demand for youth icons
(d) Demand for sex determination and abortion
74. What is the doctor’s explanation for foeticide?
(a) They think it is legitimate
(b) They do it because people demand it
(c) The technology is available and there is no harm using it
(d) None of these
75. Which of the two people mentioned in the passage suggest similar solution to
the problem?
(a) Dr.Agnihotri and Dr.George
(b) Dr.Bedi and Dr.George
(c) Dr.George and Dr.Bedi
(d) Dr.George and Ms.Sivadas
In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error.
If there is no mistake the answer is 'no error'
76. I going there(A) / will not solve(B) / this complicated problem(C) / No error(D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
77. You can get (A)/all the information you want(B) / in this book(C) / no error(D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
78. The bus could not(A) / ascend the steep hill(B) / because it was in the wrong
gears(C) / No error(D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
79. No stronger(A) / a figure than his(B) / is prescribed in the history(C) / No
error(D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

80. Most people would have(A) /attended the union meeting(B) / if they had(C)
/had longer notice of it(D) / No error(E)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
81. And though one did not(A) / quite believe his claim(B) / one saw no harm(C) /in
granting him permission(D) / No error(E)
(a) have
(b) has
(c) (d)
82. Fill in the blank with the correct option.
The secretary was not very sure _________ Delhi.
(a) about the duration of the minister’s visit to
(b) when the duration of the ministers visit to
(c) of the duration of the minister’s visit to
(d) how long the duration of the minister’s visit to
83. Fill in the blanks:
Had I been there ________ and helped the child.
(a) Could have stopped
(b) Would have stopped
(c) Might stopped
(d) Should have stopped
84. Fill in the blanks.
A rather ________ of students having trouble in economics.
(a) Large amount
(b) Large group
(c) Large proportion
(d) Large number
85. Throughout the 1950's, there were increases in the numbers of dead birds
found in agricultural areas after pesticide sprayings. Pesticide manufacturers
claimed that the publicity given to bird deaths stimulated volunteers to look for
dead birds, and that the increase in numbers reported was attributable to the
increase in the number of people looking.
Which of the following statements, if true, would help to refute the claim of the
pesticide manufacturers?
(a) The publicity given to bird deaths was largely regional and never reached
national proportions.
(b) Pesticide sprayings were timed to coincide with various phases of the life cycles
of the insects they destroyed.
(c) No provision was made to ensure that a dead bird would not be reported by
more than one observer.
(d) Initial increases in bird deaths had been noticed by agricultural workers long
before any publicity had been given to the matter.
86. Find the synonym of the word SCHLEP
(a) Take
(b) Carry
(c) Drive
(d) Shelf
(note: The question may be given in a statement)
87. Find the synonym of the word Proliferation
(a) Growth
(b) Promise
(c) Reduce
(d) Deflate
(note: The question may be given in a statement)

88. Fill in the blank with correct option.


The speech at the conference became boring when main speaker
went_____________.
(a) from 1 tangent to another
(b) Off on a tangent
(c) towards the centre of the circle
(d) None of these
89. Sales taxes tend to be regressive, affecting poor people more severely than
wealthy people. When all purchases of consumer goods are taxed at a fixed
percentage of the purchase price, poor people pay a larger proportion of their
income in sales taxes than wealthy people do.
It can be correctly inferred on the basis of the statements above that which of the
following is true?
(a) Poor people constitute a larger proportion of the taxpaying population than
wealthy people do.
(b) Poor people spend a larger proportion of their income on purchases of
consumer goods than wealthy people do.
(c) Wealthy people pay, on average, a larger amount of sales taxes than poor
people do.
(d) The total amount spent by all poor people on purchases of consumer goods
exceeds the total amount spent by all wealthy people on consumer goods.
90. Reviewing historical data, medical researchers in California found that countries
with the largest number of television sets per capita have had the lowest incidence
of a serious brain disease, mosquito-borne encephalitis. The researchers have
concluded that people in these counties stay indoors more and thus avoid exposure
to the disease.
The researchers conclusion would be most strengthened if which of the following
were true?
(a) Programs designed to control the size of disease bearing mosquito populations
have not affected the incidence of mosquito- borne encephalitis.
(b) The occupations of county residents affect their risk of exposure to mosquito-
borne encephalitis more than does television-watching
(c) The incidence of mosquito-borne encephalitis in counties with the largest
number of television sets per capita is likely to decrease even further
(d) The more television sets there are per capita in a country, the more time the
average country resident spends watching television
Read the passage and answer the questions:
Alan Turing, the British mathematician whose concepts in the early 1950s
foreshadowed the modern-day digital computer, proposed a simple test to check
for artificial intelligence.
If a human judge, he said, engaged in a natural language text conversation with two
other parties, one a human and the other a machine, and if the judge could not
reliably tell which was which, then the machine would for all purposes have passed
the test.
As of 2006 no machine has managed to do that. But now a robot messenger or
chatbot has hit the Internet. It is so lifelike in its responses that many people have
been fooled into thinking they're talking to a human being.
Invented by British scientists and nicknamed George, it's programmed to show
emotions, tell jokes, answer questions and engage in intimate conversation on
subjects as varied as love, life and the universe.
It can also speak 40 languages as its vocabulary continues to improve which,
incidentally, is bound to happen considering George has already chatted with some
two million people since its inception.
George is also capable of carrying on a conversation with hundreds of different
people at the same time from all over the globe. To some people, though, the scary
part is that George continues to evolve.
From expressing itself only as a disembodied text interface, a fully-animated 3D
image of an androgynous-looking humanoid capable of an extensive range of
gestures and expressions has recently been introduced to online audiences.
This new George, unlike many other conversational programs, does not merely try
to be logical but attempts to form relationships and frequently behave illogically in
order to seem more alive.
This is exactly what had been predicted by people ever since the industrial
revolution introduced the possibility of creating mechanical human beings, and
Mary Shelley wrote Frankenstein based on a laboratory-made semi-human
creature.
The paranoia generated by such things has only gathered momentum since then, so
that today with the advent of powerful computers it has led to an overwhelming
feeling of fear of a complete takeover by machines in the future.
The reason is that robotic creatures can now also be imbued with artificial
intelligence which rivals that of human beings. When robots supersede human
beings there would no longer be any need for the Turing Test.
Unless, of course, machines start testing us for intelligence instead.
91. As understood from the passage, what makes ‘George’ seem more life-like?
(a) Extensive range of gestures and expressions
(b) attempts to form relationships
(c) Ability to talk on varied subjects
(d) illogical behaviour
92. The robot messenger ‘George’ was invented by
(a) Alan Turing, the British mathematician
(b) American scientists
(c) Scientists from Britain
(d) Mary Shelley
93. According to the passage, what was it that no machine had managed to do?
(a) Pass the Turing test.
(b) Learn many languages
(c) Participate in conversation
(d) Show emotions and make gestures
94. What was the impetus for the new robot?
(a) Mary Shelley’s book Frankenstein
(b) Industrial revolution which saw the possibility of making mechanical human
beings
(c) Laboratory-made semi humans
(d) All of the above
95. What is the author’s greatest fear?
(a) Humans will be rivaled by machines
(b) Machines ruling us in the future
(c) Robots passing the Turing test
(d) Machines testing us for intelligence

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